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Ten reasons why every believer should speak in tongues

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j,

I judge NOT that which is INSPIRED by God. THAT is certainly DIFFERENT with 'different' folks. Just as the gifts vary, so does EACH relationship with God.

All I have attempted to do on this thread is offer that there are OBVIOUSLY 'false tongues' as there are 'false Christs' and 'false gods'.

I have personally witnessed 'tongues' that are used IN SPITE of all that has been offered concerning them.

Whether or not tongues are 'for today', I am QUITE SURE that IF God has REASON to inspire them in an individual, (or EVERYONE for that matter), He is CERTAINLY capable of offering this gift yesterday, today, AND tomorrow.

Thanks for your offering. And YES, I would CERTAINLY be interested in your stories of exorcism. I believe that we don't SPEAK of the presence of demons NEAR enough and through our refusal to discuss their presence and ability to 'possess' folks, MANY are 'unaware' and therefore MUCH MORE susceptible to their influence.

MEC
 
The tongues of Pentecost are a physical manifestation of a symbolic purpose of God (e.g. Ascension, etc), which is that all Gentiles be brought to the light of Christ (Isaiah 11:10). This was only at Pentecost, and all references by Paul to tongues are likewise symbolic.
 
protos said:
The tongues of Pentecost are a physical manifestation of a symbolic purpose of God (e.g. Ascension, etc), which is that all Gentiles be brought to the light of Christ (Isaiah 11:10). This was only at Pentecost, and all references by Paul to tongues are likewise symbolic.

Can you please point me the scriptures that will affirm your claims?

Thanks
 
jgredline said:
Can you please point me the scriptures that will affirm your claims?

No, no, it appears from 1 Corinthians 14:1-25 that tongues wasn't specifically restricted to Pentecost. However, it should be considered whether Revelation ends prophesy, and if so what that would mean to the gift of tongues.
 
protos said:
No, no, it appears from 1 Corinthians 14:1-25 that tongues wasn't specifically restricted to Pentecost. However, it should be considered whether Revelation ends prophesy, and if so what that would mean to the gift of tongues.

Do you mean the writing of Revelation or the fulfilling of it?
 
How is it that one thinks that all should speak in tongues when all do not have the other gifts?

Why is it that one thinks that he can control the gift of tongues and pray or speak in tongues any thime one pleases?
 
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