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The Contradictory Nativities of Matthew/Luke

cybershark5886 said:
So close, yet you make incorrect assumptions. Luke skips over the 2 year area of time for what ever reason (just as Chronicles skipped over large portions covered in Kings for its purposes, since it had a different focus) and the time of residence in Bethlehem is indeterminate.

Lol, if Luke 'skipped' over the two years in Matthew, then why is his narrative set when Jesus was younger than he was in Matthew?

They would have had to find a residence to stay in for the ritual 40 days, most likely with their relatives who most certainly would have shown up in Bethlehem for the census as well, if they didn't in fact live in Bethlehem. Though I wont go into it much the word kataluma, translated inn, literally means just a place to "loosen down" (lit.) for the night, and was translated "upper room" for the Lord's supper in Luke, which implies (assuming that some of his Family did indeed live in Bethlehem) that the guest area or the upper room of the house was too crowded (large Family?) so Joseph and Mary probably had to place Jesus in the feeding trough (manger) on the first floor with the animals (animals were kept in the home on the base floor in 1st century Palestine), so they most likely did have a residence to stay in in Bethlehem. After an indeterminate amount of time they traveled back to Nazereth from whence they came.

Get the order of the narratives straight (see above) before you try to make 'sense' out of self-evident contradictions. And an 'inn' (Luke) is not a 'house' (Matthew). The two words describe two different things.

You have obviously not thoroughly read the OP or perused the Matthean/Lucan accounts.
 
handy said:
Wavy, I asked before for you to provide the texts in Matthew that shows he is stating the Family stayed in Bethlehem for two years, from the time Jesus was born to the time of the flight to Egypt. Naturally you didn't, because there is no such text. Matthew doesn't mention any location of the family whatsoever in Matthew 1:18-25,

Lol, Matthew doesn't state anything about unwarranted moves to and from Bethehem/Nazareth. You want that to occur because you beg the question of Matthew and Luke's complete agreement. Read Matthew's narrative in chapter 2:

Now after Jesus was born in Bethlehem of Judea in the days of Herod the king, magi from the east arrived in Jerusalem, saying, (Matthew ii.1)

The entire story is set in Bethlehem when Jesus is born. 'Was born' here is actually an aorist passive participle and doesn't concern the moment Jesus was born, but the fact that Matthew uses the aorist shows that Jesus is in Bethlehem because he was born there and nothing else. No Nazareth, no trips. As the narrative continues we find Jesus is anywhere around two years old (Matthew ii.16). 'Having been born' in Bethlehem (as Young reads it) strongly suggest that in the context of Matthew's story, Jesus has been there the whole time since his birth, since Matthew places the context of the magi's visit on the basis that he's born there and lives there.

Matthew says they have a 'house' in Bethlehem. If they had a house there (OIKIA, the normal Greek word for a regular family abode) then they lived there and not in Nazareth. Matthew doesn't mention Nazareth until ii.23 and he introduces it in such a way that there's no doubt they hadn't lived there before, contrary to Luke, who places them there from the start (a point which you have consistently, yet understandably given the infirmity of your argument, avoided to address).

Whether Matthew i.18-25 mentions exactly where they stay before Jesus was born (which you want to be Nazareth to coincide with Luke although that disrupts the transition from the end of Matthew i to the beginning of Matthew ii.) does not make or break my case. You keep appealing to silence and making assumptions ignoring evidence to the contrary.

I repeat: silence is not the basis of my argument. I have offered positive evidence for the contradictions (which remain unaddressed in your tangents). Bury your head about them if you wish.

and Matthew is not, repeat NOT, speaking of the night Jesus was born in Matthew 2. Not once does Matthew reference the specific night of the birth of Christ.

I never said anything about the specific birth night of Christ. It would behoove you not to build straw men and go off on irrelevant tangents in attempt to disprove something that which was not stated.

No they don't. Not when they are referring to two separate events, separated by as much as two years. Don't let Christmas Cards be the basis of your theology.

1) The narratives most certainly must be looked at as a whole (any narrative or piece of literature must). That's called context. Denying it here only makes your exegesis look even more unsound in addition to your arguments from silence, unsupported assumptions, and ignoring of the positive counter-evidence against you.

2) You can't get your story straight. If Matthew is silent about the time between when Jesus was born and the flight to Egypt, a silence which you allege Luke fills with unsupported moves to and from Nazareth/Bethlehem, then the narratives do overlap. Your argument depends on them overlapping. Now you're denying that they do.

3) You are still, for obvious reasons, ignoring the positive counter-evidence I have adduced. My case is not built upon what Matthew/Luke don't say. It is built upon what they do say.

I also asked you to provide what historical reference you are referring to and you said,
...

This wasn't the sort of "historical reference" I was speaking of. I would truly like to know what historical records you are referring to here so that I can read over them myself.

Compare Josephus Antiquites of the Jews Book xviii.1-2. A Roman census occurred every so many years (and it was for Roman cititizens, having nothing to do all peoples in the Roman Empire going to their native homeland; such a feat is unimaginable and absurd, yet exactly what Luke's states). The census Josephus describes occured during the reign of Quirinius (Cyrenius in Greek) in 6 A.D. Matthew places the birth of Jesus contemporary with the reign of Herod. If Matthew supposedly agrees with Luke and simply omits mention of any census and Luke omits any mention of Herod, then you still have a problem. Herod died in 4. B.C., almost a decade before the correct historical census under Quirinius/Cyrenius actually took place.

There's more to it of course which I have neither the time nor the inclincation to get into at present, but it appears Luke invented the census in Luke ii.1-2 to place Joseph and Mary in Bethlehem from Nazareth for Jesus to be born there according to tradition. Matthew needs no census. Indeed, as I have demonstrated, Nazareth is not even a factor in Matthew until Matthew ii.23 when the family first moved there when Jesus was well over two years old. Matthew assumes they had already been living in Bethlehem (supported by the indication of the context of Matthew ii that the family had been there up to two years after Jesus was born, the fact that they stayed in a house, and the fact Joseph wanted to return there after the flight to Egypt).
 
Your 'case' isn't built upon anything at all, except a desire upon your part to discredit the Gospel accounts for whatever reason. You've built a fairly big straw man to knock down, but it's only that, a straw man. You are trying to make out that Matthew and/or Luke are somehow lying to us. There is nothing in the Gospel accounts to base that claim on.
Bingo, Handy. This was the reason for my post on page one and the reason why I didn't answer wavy's rebuttal. Wavy's arguments, either knowingly or unknowingly, are built around assumptions that are derived from omissions in the text, then uses the secular logic of modern, liberal critics. In other words, whether you are right or not, spirit inspired or otherwise, in wavy's eyes, you can't win. :-?
 
Yep, Vic, I know. I had just written a post stating that this was my last visit to this subject, but we must have hit "send" at the same time and your's won out.


However, as I have learned the hard way, it's always best to copy a post before sending, 8-) so I can just right click, select ''paste" and here goes:


Whatever Wavy!

This is my last post on this subject, mainly because I can see that you are not interested in really understanding the issue, rather you just want to try to make a case that the Bible is unreliable. You've clamped onto your "Gotcha!" like a dog on a bone, and won't let it go even when it's been pointed out that the bone is plastic.

You've made your point over and over, and refuse to see the fallacy of your argument. I'm sure that you'll try to paint my bailing on the thread as some kind of victory, but I'm sure all who read the thread can see when, where, how and why you go wrong here. Which, to be honest, was my whole point in posting anyway. I know I'm not going to convince you of anything, because you're not here to be convinced. I think that anyone reading this thread and maybe became concerned about an apparent contradiction, is now more than convinced the only "contradiction" is entirely in your head.

Which, I guess if anyone other than Wavy still thinks there is somehow a contradiction between these two accounts separated by 2 years in time, written by two different men, and has legitimate questions, I'll be happy to do my best to answer them.
 
vic C. said:
Wavy's arguments, either knowingly or unknowingly, are built around assumptions that are derived from omissions in the text,

Wrong. The evidence speaks for itself. Several times in this thread I have been militated against on the premise that I'm basing my arguments off omissions. But every time one of these false arguments were made, I denied it and made positive points.

The OP does mention omissions. The omissions do exist. But on the point of omissions I have explained why they exist based on the positive evidence of what the accounts do say. I have used language. I have used context. I have used history itself. I'm being accused of assumptions when the assumptions of persons like handy have not been supported.

Knee-jerk responses like this that have been refuted more than once in this thread only show that you do not have a true answer.
 
Lol, if Luke 'skipped' over the two years in Matthew, then why is his narrative set when Jesus was younger than he was in Matthew?

You completely misunderstood me, please pay attention as your claim as to errors in the Bible is serious. Luke covers the first 40 days of Jesus' life on earth explicitly, and then in Luke 2:39-40 he wrote, "So when they had performed all things according to the law of the Lord, they returned to Galilee, to their own city, Nazareth. And the Child grew and became strong in spirit, filled with wisdom; and the grace of God was upon him". The green portion is a blanket generalization which spans several years, as can be seen also by the next mention of Jesus (vs 42) is when he is twelve. Matthew covers more of the events past that time. I was saying that Mary and Joseph probably stayed with their relatives (based on a theory however), and if I'm wrong they must have stayed outdoors in a stable for the whole 40 days (hard to imagine - but aside from the point), and during that time only the sheperds came to see baby (take note he is a baby at this point) Jesus.

Now in Matthew, which goes beyond the 40 days covered in Luke, it tell us that the Wise Men came seeking a child who Herod, according to his calculation from the time they said they saw the star, determined was in the range of two years old or younger. I say he was about 2 years old. By the time the Wise Men get there Mary and Joseph are situated in a house (Matthew 2:11) which is apparently in Nazereth (not in Bethlehem - unless by some coincidence they were visiting Jerusalem for the Passover or something like that), because Luke said they returned home after that 40 day period. At this point also it says in verse 11 that Jesus was a young Child (a toddler - not merely a baby any more) thus notes the time passage again, which would imply they have moved on with thier life since Jesus' birth. Just because Herod sent the wise men to Bethlehem doesn't mean that Jesus was still in Bethlehem, because he was born according to the prophecy in Bethlehem (thus why Herod's scribes pointed them there) but the text explicitly says that they looked to the star, which "went before them" (vs. 10) meaning that they followed the star, which could have easily taken them to Nazareth. It also explains how they were to take another route out of Palestine to avoid Herod sucessfully, because otherwise since Bethlehem is only 1 mile from Jerusalem, and Jerusalem being the major cross-through for the Highway there, they would have had to travel south to skirt around Palestine, which would be elaborate.

I haven't completely worked out in my mind how the threat to Jesus was extended to Nazereth, but it could be in the fact that Herod could have traced Jesus down regardless of where he was for God said to Joseph, "Herod will seek the young Child to destroy him" (2:13). Also the range of the Herod families influence is once again seen when Joseph when returning from Egypt he avoided Judea all together when he heard "Archelaus was reigning over Judea" (vs. 22) so he "turned aside into the region of Galilee". The reason it sounds as if Joseph is just now coming to Nazareth in Matthew is simply because Matthew has not mentioned Nazareth before this point. Not to mention joseph would no longer have had his old house which he fled in haste.

Consider this and try to give me a thoughtful response.

Thanks,

~Josh
 
handy said:
This is my last post on this subject, mainly because I can see that you are not interested in really understanding the issue, rather you just want to try to make a case that the Bible is unreliable. You've clamped onto your "Gotcha!" like a dog on a bone, and won't let it go even when it's been pointed out that the bone is plastic.

Ad hominem fallacies are all red herrings and therefore irrelevant as an argument. You're just burying your head in the sand. You shouldn't presume to read my intent. This is a typical evasion tactic.

You've made your point over and over, and refuse to see the fallacy of your argument.

You can parrot that as many times as you like. I have demonstrated that my case is not built upon simple omissions and silence. Yours is. I have provided positive evidence for my claims on more than one line and have continued to post them. You have made assumptions without support and you're using a false logical form:

There is no evidence against 'x', therefore
'x' is true.

Not only have you commited this appeal to ignorance/argument from silence, but it's an erroneous position nonetheless. There is evidence against 'x'. I have been supplying it after your each and every reply which simply ignore the counter-evidence in subsequent replies.

I'm sure that you'll try to paint my bailing on the thread as some kind of victory, but I'm sure all who read the thread can see when, where, how and why you go wrong here.

You keep parroting that my argument is based on silence when I have demonstrated otherwise, and ignoring the fact that it is your argument that begs the question of inerrancy based on what the text do not say. That because Matthew doesn't mention [insert this ] that it doesn't mean [insert this] is not true--even when the positive statements of the narratives indicate otherwise.

There are two major contradictions I have set out to prove using the flow and context and direct and implied statements of the narratives. I added a third one in my latest reply to you about the unhistorical census (another point you choose to ignore). I have based them all on what the text do say, using the positive evidence of language and direct statements. If you bail out this way, this does not automatically make this a 'victory' on my part (whatever that is supposed to mean, since whether or not I'm right has nothing to do with whether or not you specifically agree). You may desist presuming to tell me what I'm thinking or would think. That you're bailing out in this manner (not addressing my arguments, misrepresenting an intent you could not possibly know, building one big straw man that my case is built on silence contrary to the positive evidence in my posts, and engaging in ad hominem statements) only proves that you specifically don't have anything substantive to contradict me. Others may. Let them come.

Bury your head in the sand if you wish.

Which, to be honest, was my whole point in posting anyway. I know I'm not going to convince you of anything, because you're not here to be convinced. I think that anyone reading this thread and maybe became concerned about an apparent contradiction, is now more than convinced the only "contradiction" is entirely in your head.

Meaningless knee-jerk responses. Address the evidence and not the man based off your unsupported presumptions of intent.

Which, I guess if anyone other than Wavy still thinks there is somehow a contradiction between these two accounts separated by 2 years in time, written by two different men, and has legitimate questions, I'll be happy to do my best to answer them.

This is just hypocritical. You dismiss me as wrong without acknowledging my points, claim 'victory' for yourself that you have disproved me, then you presume to take it upon yourself to 'answer' questions on the basis that I'm wrong because you say I am?

Wow. Cast the log out, friend. ;-)
 
First of all I want to state that I do appreciate you, cybershark, for actually addressing my major points, even if I disagree. It's clear that you've actually read (for the most part I think) and considered my posts. 8-)


cybershark5886 said:
Luke covers the the first 40 days of Jesus' life on earth explicitly, and then in Luke 2:39-40 he wrote, "So when they had performed all things according to the law of the Lord, they returned to Galilee, to their own city, Nazareth. And the Child grew and became strong in spirit, filled with wisdom; and the grace of God was upon him". The green portion is a blanket generalization which spans several years, as can be seen also by the next mention of Jesus (vs 42) is when he is twelve. Matthew covers more of the events past that time.

First of all, I know Luke mentions the first 40 days of Jesus and then skips ahead to his twelve years. Had I not known this somehow, I would not have mentioned these facts in the OP and in subsequent responses to challenges to the OP. Secondly, I'm a bit confused by this statement: 'Matthew covers more of the events past that time.'

Past what time?

I was saying that Mary and Joseph probably stayed with their relatives (based on a theory however), and if I'm wrong they must have stayed outdoors in a stable for the whole 40 days (hard to imagine - but aside from the point), and during that time only the sheperds came to see baby (take note he is a baby at this point) Jesus.

Yes, in Luke it may have been the author's intention that they stayed with some kind of relatives, but I don't see cogent evidence for that, nor does this theory explain why their relatives wouldn't make some kind of room for them if Mary was pregnant (they'd have to be pretty heartless to relegate them to a stable). And if they had a house in Bethlehem according to Matthew (you argue against this but see points below) they wouldn't need relatives. The context of Matthew is that Jesus was born in Bethlehem and that the family stayed in a their own house (OIKIA) from the time Jesus was born (also see arguments above against handy's appeal to ignorance on this point).

Now in Matthew which goes beyond the 40 days covered in Luke tell us that the Wise Men came seeking a child who Herod according to his calculation from the time they said they saw the star determined the child was in the range of two years or younger. I say he was about 2 years old.

I have acknowledged this two-year period in the OP. It is part of my argument. But Matthew does not start beyond the 40 days. He mentions the birth in Bethlehem in Matthew ii.1. The aorist tense here and the casual mention of events following his 'having been born' in Bethlehem indicates Bethlehem is the only city in view here, and that the family stayed there and had been staying there up until the point they went to Egypt. From the birth of Jesus to the flight to Egypt, Luke's first 40 days fall in between, thus the accounts overlap (contrary to handy's erroneous assertions above).

By the time the Wise Men get there Mary and Joseph are situated in a house (Matthew 2:11) which is apparently in Nazereth (not in Bethlehem), because Luke said they returned home after that 40 day period.

The 'house' is not in Nazareth in Matthew. The magi are sent to Bethlehem by Herod to search for the child (Matthew ii.8). Matthew then narrates that they came to the 'house', which must therefore be in Bethlehem. Herod sent assassins to Bethlehem after the magi left (v.16). An angel tells Mary and Joseph to leave because of this. Had they been in Nazareth, they would not have had to worry about assassins in Bethlehem (I'll explain more below since you touch more on this).

That Luke said they returned home after 40 days only shows that Matthew contradicts Luke, since in Matthew Bethlehem is the scene.

At this point also it says in verse 11 that Jesus was a young Child (a toddler - not merely a baby any more) thus notes the time passage again.

I know this. It constitutes part of my OP...

Just because Herod sent the wise men to Bethlehem doesn't mean that Jesus was still in bethlehem, because he was born according to the prophecy in Bethlehem (thus why Herod's scribes pointed them there) but the text explicitly says that they looked to the star, which "went before them" (vs. 10) meaning that they followed the star, which could have easily taken them to Nazareth. It also explains how they were to take another route out of Palestine to avoid Herod sucessfully, because otherwise since Bethlehem is only 1 mile from Jerusalem, and Jerusalem being the major cross-through for the Highway there, they would have had to travel south to skirt around Palestine, which would be elaborate.

I think that is a stretch that clearly turns Matthew's narrative into ambiguous, discursive nonsense.

1) The text says Herod sent the magi to Bethlehem and that the star went before them (naturally on their way to Bethlehem). A star arriving in Nazareth cannot go before men going to Bethlehem.

2) Assassins sent to Bethlehem would not be a reason to leave Nazareth (more on this below).

3) Nazareth is to the north in Galilee. If they were in Nazareth and were told to leave Nazareth to protect Jesus (although he's not in danger there since no assassins were sent there), why would God bring them all the way south past Herod to get to Egypt? That's just a silly move. They could have went north.

4) Joseph wanted to go back to Judea, but Herod's son reigned there. There's no point in going back to Judea if your home was in Nazareth. That's a random, nonsensical move.

5) As I have continually mentioned throughout this thread, Matthew ii.23 taken at face value plainly contradicts the notion that they had already lived in Nazareth. I repeat: The way Matthew ii.23 plainly reads shows they hadn't lived there before. For one, you don't come and dwell in a place where you already stay. The Greek word here, KATOIKEW, never means to go back to a place you already stay in, especially not with the verb 'came'. (more on this below). Secondly, had they already been going back and forth between Bethlehem and Nazareth, the supposed 'prophecy' would have already been completed long ago, since Luke records Joseph and Mary were already living there. Third, the indefiniteness of city ('a city called Nazareth') further supports the notion that Matthew is introducing it for the first time because it was foreign to his story up until that point (which strongly indicates their home was in Bethlehem among other points). More on this since you touch on some of these points below.

6) Luke was written after Matthew. Those reading Matthew before the gospel of Luke existed could hardly have read the events of Luke into Matthew. You have to beg their inerrancy and agreement to 'prove' your case (contrary to the evidence and to their literary independence and to the flow of their narratives). The reading of Matthew is clear. The reading of Luke is clear. I think you're grasping at straws.

I haven't completely worked out in my mind how the threat to Jesus was extended to Nazereth, but it could be in the fact that Herod could have traced Jesus down regardless of where he was for God said to Joseph, "Herod will seek the young Child to destroy him" (2:13). Also the range of the Herod families influence is once again seen when Joseph when returning from Egypt he avoided Judea all together when he heard "Archelaus was reigning over Judea" (vs. 22) so he "turned aside into the region of Galilee". The reason it sounds as if Joseph is just now coming to Nazareth in Matthew is simply because Matthew has not mentioned Nazareth before this point. Not to mention joseph would no longer have had his old house which he fled in haste.

1) Matthew tells us how Herod sought the child...by sending assassins to Bethlehem. This Palestinean campaign you're looking for doesn't exist and lacks evidence in any way shape or form. Herod would have no reason to search up north in Galilee once he had been explicitly told that the Messiah would be born in Bethlehem (Matthew's indication that he was still there having been born there as he states in verse 1). He would not have to scour Palestine for the child. He assumes Jesus is in Bethlehem and sends assassins who do their job. Since Herod doesn't know Jesus escaped to Egypt, he would have assumed that he killed him off, thus no reason for further searching in Galilee.

2) If the family had left Nazareth in fear of a Herodian campaign to search all throughout Palestine, Joseph would not have just been afraid to return to Judea. He'd be afraid to return to Nazareth in Galilee too (where he originally fled from in fear). And there would be no reason for him to want to go to Judea in the first place after they returned from Egypt unless we understand Matthew's clear indication that they had lived there. Joseph wanting to return to Judea would be just random nonsense and irrelevant to the story. To suggest Herod would search in Galilee for no reason and with no impetus (having focused on Bethlehem) is just more grasping at straws...taking huge leaps and making assumptions without any proof other than the begged question that Matthew and Luke just cannot disagree contrary to the evidence that they do.

3) Matthew states that Joseph came to Nazareth because a prophecy is being fulfilled. Taken at face value without reading into the text, this proves he had not lived there before as this 'prophecy' Matthew wants to fulfill at that time would have been unnecessary and already completed. You're reading disrupts the flow of Matthew's context and makes it incomprehensible without 'supplemental' material from Luke, which is an independent account. If Matthew is an independent account, and it most certainly is, then it does not rely on Luke to fill in details that disprupt Matthew's reading and vice versa. These are not sound methods of exegesis or textual criticism.

4) Based on the many assumptions being made without evidence and violating Occam's razor, and based on the most unnatural (yet still contradictory) readings that you require for the accounts to mesh, I think it's safe to say that the OP has not been reconciled.
 
You give a compeling review of the ambiguities that have always existed in the text, thus naturaly puzzling. I will have to actually study more on this and meditate on it if you don't mind before I give an answer. There are some things (and not just this passage) that have ambiguities that may never be solved, but I still will hold to the strong underlying conviction that God's word is inspired, and nothing will shake me from that faith, else faith is no longer faith. But thank you for your thoughtful post, this will make for one of the deepest studies I've done in the Gospels (aside from trying to peice together a definate chronology/sequence between the 4 Gospels of the night of the Lord's Supper (near impossible BTW :-), not enough is stated explicitly). Anyway, please give me some time on this.

God Bless,

~Josh
 
*bumped for my own personal perusal.*

~eric
 
.

If only our government officials were steadily on guard in regard to the econcomic interests and civil security of Americans as well as are the moderators here for keeping order according to the TOS in regard to some topics. :lol:

.
 
Hello Everybody! :D

Mary was Jesus' ONLY valid "fleshly connection" to the human race, hence any valid kingly lineage had to come through her (the guys will hate this). So the kingly lineage in Matthew 1 MUST be MARY'S. If the kingly lineage in Matthew 1 were Joseph’s, it wouldn’t count towards Jesus’ legal right to rule Israel because genetically speaking, Joseph and Jesus were total strangers.

But you might ask why Matthew 1:16 says: "Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus." Jewish tradition forbade referring to or mentioning a married woman's name apart from her husband, especially BEFORE her husband's. That's why Mat 1:16 says: “And Jacob begat Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ.†From that we understand: "Jacob begat Joseph's Mary." Moreover, no woman was EVER mentioned in any Jewish lineage. I think it's only by a miracle of God that Mary even got ANY mention in Matthew 1! Although, being Jesus' mother, I guess she couldn't just be totally ignored. :(

Thus the lineage in Luke is JOSEPH'S lineage. It couldn't be Jesus' lineage because the scripture says: “And Jesus himself began to be about thirty years of age, being (as was supposed) the son of Joseph.†This tells us that Jesus had absolutely no "fleshly connection" to Jesus at all! And besides that, the lineage in Luke is not a royal lineage!

Another interesting fact about Matthew 1 is that it says:
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Mat 1:17 So all the generations from Abraham to David [are] fourteen generations; and from David until the carrying away into Babylon [are] fourteen generations; and from the carrying away into Babylon unto Christ [are] fourteen generations.
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

So Matthew mentions 3X14 (42) generations from Abraham to Christ. But I promise you that no matter how carefully you count you can only count 41! :o No, this is not a discrepancy, but a fairly well-known revelation that I'll do my best to remember and explain after we might hopefully hear any further discussion on the two different lineages

Best Blessings,
"Arph"
------------
 
To throw a wrench into the mix there is also another "revelation" to be gained from the geneology in Matthew. The mention of Jeconiah is problematic because in Jeremiah 22:24-30 the Lord pronounces a curse on Jeconiah and his descendants, declaring them ineligible to sit upon the throne of David as the king of Israel.

This must mean that Christ had to come by virgin birth that the King and Messiah might be from God and not man. And yet on the man side (to fulfill the prophecies) he was legally under the household of a decendant of David (both Mary and Joseph) and even born of a decendant of David, but that his eligibility to sit on the throne did not come from either parent but from God alone. But Jeconiah being mentioned proves that this is no ordinary proof of the King's (Jesus') lineage, but an extraordinary and supernatural occurance by God to fulfill his promise by His power alone where man had already failed and been rejected. How's that for a revelation? ;)

P.S. That's the only explanation I could come up with anyway. If anybody has a better one please do tell. :)

~Josh
 
Hello Cybershark! :D

Excellent observation on Jeconiah! Here's the passage you mentioned in reference to Jeconiah (Coniah) losing his right to rule:
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Jer 22:24-30 As I live, saith the LORD, though Coniah the son of Jehoiakim king of Judah were the signet upon my right hand, yet would I pluck thee thence;

5 And I will give thee into the hand of them that seek thy life, and into the hand of them whose face thou fearest, even into the hand of Nebuchadrezzar king of Babylon, and into the hand of the Chaldeans.

26 And I will cast thee out, and thy mother that bare thee, into another country, where ye were not born; and there shall ye die.

27 But to the land whereunto they desire to return, thither shall they not return.

28 Is this man Coniah a despised broken idol? is he a vessel wherein is no pleasure? wherefore are they cast out, he and his seed, and are cast into a land which they know not?

29 O earth, earth, earth, hear the word of the LORD.

30 Thus saith the LORD, Write ye this man childless, a man that shall not prosper in his days: for no man of his seed shall prosper, sitting upon the throne of David, and ruling any more in Judah.
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Boy! what a morass! The lineages of the Kings of Israel and Judah in the OT look to me like a lifetime study! Or maybe it's just because I need I need more sleep :lol:

Anyway, I strongly agree with you that the basis for Jesus' Earthly right to rule is spiritual (God-determined) rather than natural genetic. Just as we believers are counted as Abraham's descendants even though we''re not genetically in his family. The "genetics" as described in the OT are absolutely mind-boggling, especially since the kings of Judah did not always seem to be genetically related. It appears they were sometimes just chosen by other foreign kings for political purposes without regard to genetics at all!

Oh, by the way, regarding the mystery of the " missing 42nd generation" in Matthew 1: Here's the answer I heard many years ago: WE BELIEVERS, having the spirit of Christ within, are "the missing 42nd generation." :o
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1Pe 2:9 But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light: (underline and bolding are my own).
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It's not always easy for us humans to remember that the bible is a spiritual book dealing with spiritual things.

Best Blessings,
"Arph"
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Thanks for the input Arph, I enjoyed it. :)

P.S. Out of all the names, why Arphaxad? :D I'd have to go look in my lexicon again to see what it means. Maybe it just sounded cool, like I thought with my screen name. :)

God Bless,

~Josh
 
cybershark5886 said:
You give a compeling review of the ambiguities that have always existed in the text, thus naturaly puzzling. I will have to actually study more on this and meditate on it if you don't mind before I give an answer. There are some things (and not just this passage) that have ambiguities that may never be solved, but I still will hold to the strong underlying conviction that God's word is inspired, and nothing will shake me from that faith, else faith is no longer faith. But thank you for your thoughtful post, this will make for one of the deepest studies I've done in the Gospels (aside from trying to peice together a definate chronology/sequence between the 4 Gospels of the night of the Lord's Supper (near impossible BTW :-), not enough is stated explicitly). Anyway, please give me some time on this.

God Bless,

~Josh

The key (as Bart Erhman has taught the critical observer) -- is to "watch for the wild inserts" that are mechanically inserted into the text by those wishing to question and discount it. Know the difference between what the text REALLY says -- and the wild accusations being made against it as I pointed out in my previous post here.

viewtopic.php?f=14&t=31733#p380304

in Christ,

Bob
 
wavy said:
Imagican said:
Nice reply Devecut.

His response was just a dodge (no offense to him). Matthew and Luke do not have to fabricate historical events to make theological points.....

Its not a matter of fabrication. Neither one of those men witnessed the events. They put them to writing long after they heard the tale, and variances are to be expected.

Your error come from reading the Bible and expecting facts to correlate as if you were reading a 20th century log book. We Americans like our history books to be precise. God, however, was trying to convey other truths when He inspired the writers, and the particulars of those stories you mention have nothing to do with the truths God is trying to convey. God wants all to know that He, infinitely perfect and blessed in himself, in a plan of sheer goodness freely created man to make him share in his own blessed life. For this reason, at every time and in every place, God draws close to man. He calls man to seek him, to know him, to love him with all his strength. He calls together all men, scattered and divided by sin, into the unity of his family, the Church. To accomplish this, when the fullness of time had come, God sent his Son as Redeemer and Savior. In his Son and through him, he invites men to become, in the Holy Spirit, his adopted children and thus heirs of his blessed life.

These are the truths that the Evangelists convey perfectly in the Gospels. Those details you are focusing on are neither here nor there. Semites did not write history the way we do, with attention to details and minutia. They wrote to convey Truths using broad strokes. This is not fabrication, and neither is it discrepency or error; it is merely the Semitic style of writing - a focus on a major truth, not minor tangential issues.
 
I can fully relate to your view, CC. That's the mentality I took when I became a liberal Christian. However, that's what eventually lead me away from Christianity. You start to wonder: 'What really are the "minutiae"? How much do you absorb and how much of the "minutiae" do you overlook?'

I believe all of it has to coincide (even down to the 'minutiae') or it all must be rejected. Some might raise the objection that that's a false dilemma and that instead we should seek out middle ground. The problem for me with that is what constitutes a 'minor' discrepancy or inaccuracy? How broad can you stretch what's supposed to be the--as you say--'major truths'? What if I make my 'major truth' out to be: 'the point is that God exists and that he loves us'. Under that broad sentiment I could say, for example: 'Jesus didn't have to even exist. His story is just meant to inspire us to acknowledge God's love'. That's the point at which belief becomes completely desultory because you could always broaden or narrow your window of what's tolerable or essential and what isn't.


Kind regards,
~Eric
 
wavy said:
....'What really are the "minutiae"? How much do you absorb and how much of the "minutiae" do you overlook?'.. ...I believe all of it has to coincide (even down to the 'minutiae') or it all must be rejected.....

Well, my answer would be very "Catholic", so I'll drag you into the RC Forum when it re-opens and answer your question.
 
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