Re: The Lord's day
guibox said:
Orthodox Christian said:
Post-scripture, as you say, by 15 years, in the case of Ignatius. And we are to believe that use of the term 'Lord's Day changed from either a reference to the Sabbath to reference to ther First Day in 15 years? Completely illogical.
I would like to know your sources on post apostolic usage of "Lord's Day", OC. My research has come to this conclusion as Dr. Bacchiocchi says:
I've already mentioned the sources, they're widely known as easily accessible:
1. Ignatius, epistle to Magnesians, ca 105 AD
We have seen how former adherents of the ancient customs have since attained to a new hope; so that they have given up keeping the Sabbath, and now order their lives by the Lord's Day instead - the Day when life first dawned for us, thanks to Him (Jesus) and His death. [Epistle to the Magnesians 9
2. Didache, ca 125 AD
Assemble on the Lord's Day, and break bread and offer the Eucharist; but first make confession of your faults, so that your sacrifice may be a pure one. [The Didache 14:1]
3. Epistle of Barnabas, ca 100 AD
And we too rejoice in celebrating the eighth day; because that was when Jesus rose from the dead... [Epistle of Barnabas 15]
As I have stated, the notion that this designate of the Lord's Day only became called such in the 15 years post- John's Apocalypse- this is illogical in the extreme.
Speaking of illogical in the extreme, let's read what Dr B has to offer:
"Sunday. The prevailing interpretation equates the expression "Lord’s day" with Sunday.
This equation is based not on internal evidences of the book of Revelation but on three second-century patristic testimonies, namely, Didache 14:1, Ignatius’ Epistle to the Magnesians 9:1 and the Gospel of Peter 35 and 50. Of these, only in the apocryphal Gospel of Peter, which is dated in the latter half of the second century, is Sunday unmistakably designated by the technical term "Lord’sâ€â€kuriake."
Stop there- note the use of the term "second century." This is like the product on sale for 19.99- the number is distorted purposefully. In truth, the letters were early second century, less than 20 years past the writing of John's apocalypse. We continue....
The designation of Sunday as "Lord’s day" which unmistakably appears before the end of the second century cannot necessarily be read back into Revelation 1:10.
Stop again- this is further distortion. Ok, let's call it what it is- fraud. He has now pushed back the Lord's Day term 100 years past Apocalypse. Keep your eye on the shell with the ball under it....
A major reason is that if Sunday had already received the new appellation "Lord’s day" by the end of the first century, when both the Gospel of John and the book of Revelation were written, we would expect this new name for Sunday to be used consistently in both works, especially since they were apparently produced by the same author at approximately the same time and in the same geographical area.
Would we? And why, Dr B? Because you say so? I mean, we see the term 'Lord's Day used once in Ignatius' writings, once in the Didache. But John should be using the term consistently, Dr B says.
Never mind that- we see the term used in three different writings within 30 years of the writing of Apocalypse, and in each it means Sunday, not Sabbath, not the Last Days, or even the Day of the Lord.
If a new term prevails and is more readily understood, a writer does not confuse his readers with archaic time designations. Moreover, if the new designation "Lord’s day" already existed and expressed the meaning and nature of Christian worship, the Gospel writers would hardly have had reasons to use the Jewish phrase "first day of the week."
Now we've expanded the search back in time to gospel writers, plural. Can we not stay on topic, Dr B?
Therefore, the fact that the expression "Lord’s day" occurs in John’s apocalyptic book but not in his Gospelâ€â€where the first day is explicitly mentioned in conjunction with the resurrection (John 20:1) and the appearances of Jesus (John 20:19, 26)â€â€suggests that the "Lord’s day" of Revelation 1:10 can hardly refer to Sunday."
"Suggests" to whom? To this day, the Lord's Day is known by several different designations, each interchangeable. First Day, Eighth Day, Sunday, Kyriaki, Resurrection Day...
:roll:
And this brings us back to the central point: The Lord, which means the Lord Jesus, rose from the dead on the first day of the week. His resurrection is the most significant event in history, for those who believe in Him. It is right, and meet, and sensible, and just to refer to the eighth day as the Lord's Day, as did John the Revelator, as did Ignatius, as did Barnabas, as did Justin Martyr, as does the Church. That Sabbatarians brush off His resurrection as irrelvant in comparison with the Mosaic Law boggles the mind.
Unfortunately for Dr B, he doesn't boggle mine.
ereni pasi
Iakovos