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    There is salvation in no other, for there is not another name under heaven having been given among men, by which it behooves us to be saved."

The Myth of saying that Jesus Christ died for all men without exception !

free:

If God desires all men to be saved, then Jesus died for all men, without exception or else this statement self-destructs.

Yes, All the Men God wants to Be saved, Jesus saved, but those men are limited to His Sheep.

Jn 10:

26But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.

27My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:

28And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
29My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.
 
tig:

Actually, the bible does state that Christ died for all.

All the Church eph 5:

25Husbands, love your wives, even as Christ also loved the church, and gave himself for it;
 
1Ti 2:4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. (NKJV)

If God desires all men to be saved, then Jesus died for all men, without exception or else this statement self-destructs.
Respectfully: There are plenty of statements that collapse under the “God loves every person” world-view too. Don’t dismiss sovereign election out of hand…

John 5:21
21 For just as the Father raises the dead and gives them life, even so the Son gives life to whom he is pleased to give it.

John 8:47
47 Whoever belongs to God hears what God says. The reason you do not hear is that you do not belong to God.”

Luke 10:
21 At that time Jesus, full of joy through the Holy Spirit, said, “I praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and learned, and revealed them to little children. Yes, Father, for this is what you were pleased to do.
22 “All things have been committed to me by my Father. No one knows who the Son is except the Father, and no one knows who the Father is except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal him.”

Mat 13:
10 The disciples came to him and asked, “Why do you speak to the people in parables?”
11 He replied, “Because the knowledge of the secrets of the kingdom of heaven has been given to you, but not to them.


There is a lot of biblical support for predestination. Also consider the comfort this view offers to a frightened sheep… The shepherd knows all His sheep and will not loose any… including me! Surely, goodness and mercy will follow me all of my days… right? How many times did Jesus say, “worry not” or “do not worry”? How can I do this if things are "up in the air"?!

If things are not yet determined, then I actually HAVE something to worry about, don’t I?! God Himself might actually be worried... or least concerned... mightn't He? I just don't see God that way...

I take much rest and comfort in knowing that God has it all worked out. He will get everything He wants - every soul He wants. His will not be a partial victory in which He wants all the people for Himself, but can only manage to grab some of them away from Satan… God forbid that it be that way!

That’s just not the Almighty God I see in Job, Habakkuk, Joshua, Samuel, Psalm 46 and 139 etc…

-HisSheep
 
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free:



Yes, All the Men God wants to Be saved, Jesus saved, but those men are limited to His Sheep.
"All men" certainly does not mean "not all men." And there is absolutely no hint of "all the men God wants to be saved." The verse clearly states that "God desires all men to be saved"--"all men" means "all men."

sbg said:
Jn 10:

26But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.

27My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:

28And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
29My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.
Be very careful in making this a universal statement about all men.


HisSheep said:
There is a lot of biblical support for predestination. Also consider the comfort this view offers to a frightened sheep… The shepherd knows all His sheep and will not loose any… including me! Surely, goodness and mercy will follow me all of my days… right? How many times did Jesus say, “worry not†or “do not worry� How can I do this if things are "up in the air"?!
And point out just once where Jesus says this about salvation? Paul certainly uses a lot of "ifs," "ands" and "buts" in manners which suggest your view is incorrect or at least incomplete.

HisSheep said:
His will not be a partial victory in which He wants all the people for Himself, but can only manage to grab some of them away from Satan… God forbid that it be that way!
That "God desires all men to be saved" but that only some will be saved in no way suggests a "partial victory."
 
free:

All men" certainly does not mean "not all men."

Yes it does, all men without distinction, does not mean all men without exception.
 
free:

Be very careful in making this a universal statement about all men.

Dont worry, its not, because Christ did not die to save all men without exception, but only the all men God gave Him to save.

jn 6:

38For I came down from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.

39And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me[The Sheep] I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.

Jesus says the Father gave Him The Sheep Jn 10:

27My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:


28And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
29My Father, which gave them me,

No universalism here, because all men are not of His Sheep, sorry !
 
free:

That "God desires all men to be saved" but that only some will be saved in no way suggests a "partial victory
."

Yes, Then Jesus had failed His Fathers will !
 
2 Tim. 4:
17 Notwithstanding the Lord stood with me, and strengthened me; that by me the preaching might be fully known, and that all the Gentiles might hear: and I was delivered out of the mouth of the lion.
 
A review of the term "all" in its context in 1 Tim 2......
If this is UR doctrine, which it appears to be, it stops here. It is false and against the TOS to be discussed.

Jesus died for everyone, however, the only ones who will be saved are those who believe this and make him Lord.

1Ti 2:4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. (NKJV)

If God desires all men to be saved, then Jesus died for all men, without exception or else this statement self-destructs.

Before anyone should make the claim that the word "all men" in 1Tim 2 means each and every man that ever lived in all times, we should check and see if the universal understanding of the word "all men" is internally consistent within the context. I take a position that the greek word for "all" (pas pasa pan) does not have to mean "each and every man that ever lived" within the context of 1Tim 2. The word "all" (Pas pasa pan) is used 5 times in the context of 1Tim.

1Ti 2:1 I exhort therefore, first of all, that supplications, prayers, intercessions, thanksgivings, be made for all men;
The word pas (all) is used twice in verse 1. Paul writes "first of all." The use of the word here does not speak of men, but of an order. Paul is saying "first in the order."

The second use in this verse suggests that pray be made for "all men." If a person assumes that the word "all" always means all men in all times everywhere, then we should assume that the person will pray for all men, in all times, without any exceptions. I would ask if any readers collect phone books? If you read the word "all" as all men without exception, then you should get your local phone book and then start going down the list of names, and then when you finish, continue to get other phone books until you have prayed for each and every man in the world. But then you should make sure you get death records so that you can pray for those in other times. It this sounds absurd, it might be because the word "pas" (all) does not have to mean "each and every person that ever lived without any exceptions." In verse 1, we are to pray 1Ti 2:1 I exhort therefore, first of all, that supplications, prayers, intercessions, thanksgivings, be made for all kinds of men. It can be seen in the context how Paul is speaking of "all kinds or categories of men," and not "all men without exception." Notice Paul moves to categories of men in verse 2.

1Ti 2:2 for kings and all that are in high place; that we may lead a tranquil and quiet life in all godliness and gravity.
The category Paul mentions here concerns rules. This is also the third use of the term "all." In this verse, if the term "all" must always include all men in all times everywhere, then we have a problem. That reading would clearly make nonsense of verse 2 where Paul is talking about rules and kings. Also, if you prayed for all men everywhere in verse 1, then would not verse 2 be redundant? The kings would already be covered. However, the term "All" does not always mean each and every man without exception. To Paul is instructing us to pray for the category of men that are rulers here.

1Ti 2:4 who would have all men to be saved, and come to the knowledge of the truth.
John Piper, a Calvinist, believes that there are two wills of God. There is his decree, and then his desire. Piper softens verse 4 to speak not of a decree that all men be saved, but a desire. While I greatly appreciate Pipers ministry, and think highly of his gifted abilities to do exegesis, I cannot agree with Piper. Again, because of the context in verses 1-2, I think this context is using the term "all" (pas) as speaking of all kinds of men, but not all men without exception. If God wills all men without exception to be saved, and not all men are saved, then will God spend eternity standing and looking into hell weaping because he could not save everyone? Or maybe he will get over it and just forget those he was unable to save because of the sovereign free will of man. Does not the Arminian reading of this text say that our will is greater then Gods will. Gods will wanted us to be saved, but our will had its way?

It seems more natural to read the term "all men" in the same way as in verses 1-2. Then verse 4 would be saying that God wants all kinds of men to be saved. This would include Jew and Gentile, male and female, slave and free, and maybe even a few of those smelly barbarian Scythians.

1Ti 2:5 For there is one God, one mediator also between God and men, himself man, Christ Jesus,
1Ti 2:6 who gave himself a ransom for all; the testimony to be borne in its own times;

Here is where the tension really comes in. If the term "all" means all men at all times, everywhere." If it means "all men without exception." The Jesus becomes the mediator for unbelieving sinners. He mediates on the basis of his blood, but his blood is insufficient for all men without exception. Verse 6 is the verse that has the word "All" and it speaks of the ranson of Christs crosswork. It was a ransom for all men without exception, or a ransom for all categories of men? If a person continues to read the word "all" as all men without exception, he will certainly have trouble with universalism. This issue came up above in this thread because there seems to be no logical way to read Christs mediation and his work of ransom, and yet it does nothing. I would agree with the universalistic understanding that when Christ stands between man and God on the basis of his shed blood, it saves. Where we disagree is on the meaning of the word "all." I don't see how the Arminian reading can be consistent in its use of the term "all" within the context.

1Ti 2:8 I desire therefore that the men pray in every place, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and disputing.
This is the final use of the term "all" in the context. This use of the term does not speak directly of men, but it returns to the theme of prayer. Prayer is the bookends of the context. In this use of the term "all" men are to pray in all places. Again, I would ask is this a command to pray in each and every place without exception? Or in all kinds of places? When is the last you prayed, moved a step, prayed, moved a step, and tried to pray one step at a time accross your city? State? country? world? Don't forget Mt Everest! And when you finish earth, please schedule your trip to the moon and begin again. To actually take the world "All" as meaning all places without exception is an absurdity. It is much more natural to see the term "All" as speaking of all categories of places, or all kinds of places.

My conclusion is that it is very artificial and unnatural to force the word "All" to mean "all men without exception" in the context of 1 Tim 2. This verse, with 1 John 2:2, and a few other verses are the common few verses repeated over and over to refute the concept of an actual atonement. In my opinion, such a view devalues the power of the atonement to save. The Arminian view is truly the "very limited" atonement because it does not save. I recently spoken to an Arminian that is uncomfortable with the term "limited" atonement. I myself prefer the term "particular redemption." The atonement is infinite in its power to save. The atonement is superlative in its power to save. We are saved to the "uttermost." If we add trillions and trillions and zillions more people to the elect, Christ would not have to shed any more blood, he would not have to suffer any more because the value of that atonement was infinite. But each and every drop, we shed for the elect and not for "all men without exception."
 
Eph. 3:
8 Unto me, who am less than the least of all saints, is this grace given, that I should preach among the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ;
9 And to make all men see what is the fellowship of the mystery, which from the beginning of the world hath been hid in God, who created all things by Jesus Christ
 
There is a lot of biblical support for predestination. Also consider the comfort this view offers to a frightened sheep… The shepherd knows all His sheep and will not loose any… including me! Surely, goodness and mercy will follow me all of my days… right? How many times did Jesus say, “worry not†or “do not worry� How can I do this if things are "up in the air"?!
And point out just once where Jesus says this about salvation? Paul certainly uses a lot of "ifs," "ands" and "buts" in manners which suggest your view is incorrect or at least incomplete.
Point out where Jesus says what about salvation?

That He knows His sheep?

That He will not loose any?

Surely you can find that…

What does Paul say?

Ephesians 1:4-5
4For he chose us in him before the creation of the world to be holy and blameless in his sight. In love 5 he predestined us for adoption to sonship through Jesus Christ, in accordance with his pleasure and will—


Where are the “ifâ€s, “andâ€s or “butsâ€?

Okay, there’s one “andâ€â€¦. Holy AND blameless…

It seems that Paul was a Calvinist… :)

-HisSheep
 
John 10:9
I am the door: by me if any man enter in, he shall be saved, and shall go in and out, and find pasture.

Mark 7:16
If any man have ears to hear, let him hear.

1 Corinthians 8:2
And if any man think that he knoweth any thing, he knoweth nothing yet as he ought to know.

1 Corinthians 8:3
But if any man love God, the same is known of him.




What are you saying here? That when we read “any man†in these contexts, that the intention is that salvation is available to “any man� Meaning… God “enables†or “calls†all men?

I don’t think so at all.

Let’s be honest… Who did Jesus refer to when He said, “No one can come to me unless he is enabled by the Father? Are “all men†thus enabled? If so, why did Jesus draw any distinction at all?

The use of “all men†here is not about God desiring “all men†to come to Him…

This use of “all men†is like saying, “all men who come to the party will wear costumes.†It doesn’t at all mean that “all men†are invited to the party…

A similar sentence: Anyone who comes to my house will be treated well.

This use of “all menâ€, like John 3:16’s use of “whoever†or “whosoeverâ€, means “those who do†rather than “anyone mayâ€.

I predict that Calvinists will recognize the distinction and Arminians won’t…

-HisSheep
 
free:

Yes it does, all men without distinction, does not mean all men without exception.
You are forcing an interpretation into the text which isn't there.

sbg said:
Dont worry, its not, because Christ did not die to save all men without exception, but only the all men God gave Him to save.
Like I said...

No universalism here, because all men are not of His Sheep, sorry !
What does this have to do with the discussion?


mondar said:
The second use in this verse suggests that pray be made for "all men." If a person assumes that the word "all" always means all men in all times everywhere, then we should assume that the person will pray for all men, in all times, without any exceptions. I would ask if any readers collect phone books? If you read the word "all" as all men without exception, then you should get your local phone book and then start going down the list of names, and then when you finish, continue to get other phone books until you have prayed for each and every man in the world. But then you should make sure you get death records so that you can pray for those in other times. It this sounds absurd, it might be because the word "pas" (all) does not have to mean "each and every person that ever lived without any exceptions." In verse 1, we are to pray 1Ti 2:1 I exhort therefore, first of all, that supplications, prayers, intercessions, thanksgivings, be made for all kinds of men. It can be seen in the context how Paul is speaking of "all kinds or categories of men," and not "all men without exception." Notice Paul moves to categories of men in verse 2.
Firstly, no one is making the argument that "all men" always means "all men, in all times, in all places."

1 Tim 2:1-9:

1 First of all, then, I urge that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and thanksgivings be made for all people,
2 for kings and all who are in high positions, that we may lead a peaceful and quiet life, godly and dignified in every way.
3 This is good, and it is pleasing in the sight of God our Savior,
4 who desires all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
6 who gave himself as a ransom for all, which is the testimony given at the proper time.
7 For this I was appointed a preacher and an apostle (I am telling the truth, I am not lying), a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and truth.
8 I desire then that in every place the men should pray, lifting holy hands without anger or quarreling;
9 likewise also that women should adorn themselves in respectable apparel, with modesty and self-control, not with braided hair and gold or pearls or costly attire, (ESV)

Note that "all kinds" is not in all versions. And, no, the context does not necessarily support Paul speaking only "of 'all kinds or categories of men,'" especially since he lists only two. There is no reason to not believe a simple reading of the text which indicates that Paul is speaking of praying for everyone--in one's city, country, place of work, etc.--within the bounds of Scripture of course.

mondar said:
Also, if you prayed for all men everywhere in verse 1, then would not verse 2 be redundant? The kings would already be covered. However, the term "All" does not always mean each and every man without exception. To Paul is instructing us to pray for the category of men that are rulers here.
Not necessarily. Paul is instructing believers to pray for everyone, as in "all men"--the plain meaning. Verse 2 is redundant in the sense that Paul is just expanding on two particular categories of men. Your argument that my understanding would be redundant shoots itself in the foot since it is no different than you saying that Paul is speaking of kinds or categories of men in verse 1 and then mentioning two categories in verse 2.

mondar said:
John Piper, a Calvinist, believes that there are two wills of God.
And this I believe is the case. It is all I have ever heard preached on this verse the two different words used for God's "will" in the NT, the one in the passage in question meaning "desire." I think that is almost universally accepted.

mondar said:
Again, because of the context in verses 1-2, I think this context is using the term "all" (pas) as speaking of all kinds of men, but not all men without exception.
I believe this to be a misapplication of the argument to context.

mondar said:
If God wills all men without exception to be saved, and not all men are saved, then will God spend eternity standing and looking into hell weaping because he could not save everyone? Or maybe he will get over it and just forget those he was unable to save because of the sovereign free will of man. Does not the Arminian reading of this text say that our will is greater then Gods will. Gods will wanted us to be saved, but our will had its way?
See Drew's arguments about how and why God uses people the way he does. Your argument is based on a misunderstanding of how God works in the world in relation to man's freewill and the way that God deals with man and intends to bring about final justice and restoration to all of Creation.

mondar said:
It seems more natural to read the term "all men" in the same way as in verses 1-2. Then verse 4 would be saying that God wants all kinds of men to be saved. This would include Jew and Gentile, male and female, slave and free, and maybe even a few of those smelly barbarian Scythians.
On one level, yes, of course it could mean that. But at the same time it can also mean that God, at every time in history, did, and does, actually desire that all men, in all places would come to salvation.

You are unnecessarily limiting the meaning of what a plain reading of the text would indicate.

mondar said:
1Ti 2:5 For there is one God, one mediator also between God and men, himself man, Christ Jesus,
1Ti 2:6 who gave himself a ransom for all; the testimony to be borne in its own times;

Here is where the tension really comes in. If the term "all" means all men at all times, everywhere." If it means "all men without exception." The Jesus becomes the mediator for unbelieving sinners. He mediates on the basis of his blood, but his blood is insufficient for all men without exception. Verse 6 is the verse that has the word "All" and it speaks of the ranson of Christs crosswork. It was a ransom for all men without exception, or a ransom for all categories of men? If a person continues to read the word "all" as all men without exception, he will certainly have trouble with universalism. This issue came up above in this thread because there seems to be no logical way to read Christs mediation and his work of ransom, and yet it does nothing. I would agree with the universalistic understanding that when Christ stands between man and God on the basis of his shed blood, it saves. Where we disagree is on the meaning of the word "all." I don't see how the Arminian reading can be consistent in its use of the term "all" within the context.
There is only trouble if one ignores that those who are saved are those who believe in Christ's atoning sacrifice and choose to follow him. The NT is replete with verses stating such. In verse 6, "all men" once again means all men without exception. There is no tension at all.

mondar said:
1Ti 2:8 I desire therefore that the men pray in every place, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and disputing.
This is the final use of the term "all" in the context. This use of the term does not speak directly of men, but it returns to the theme of prayer. Prayer is the bookends of the context. In this use of the term "all" men are to pray in all places. Again, I would ask is this a command to pray in each and every place without exception? Or in all kinds of places? When is the last you prayed, moved a step, prayed, moved a step, and tried to pray one step at a time accross your city? State? country? world? Don't forget Mt Everest! And when you finish earth, please schedule your trip to the moon and begin again. To actually take the world "All" as meaning all places without exception is an absurdity. It is much more natural to see the term "All" as speaking of all categories of places, or all kinds of places.
Oh my. This is taking things way too far, much like your argument regarding the second verse. Praying in "all places" would simply mean praying wherever you are. To say that according to my arguments it means that each person must pray everywhere in the world is to throw common sense out the window and ignore a plain reading of the text.

This passage is in line with Paul saying that we should be in prayer continuously, at all times regardless of where we are.
 
What are you saying here? That when we read “any man” in these contexts, that the intention is that salvation is available to “any man”? Meaning… God “enables” or “calls” all men?

I don’t think so at all.

The call assuredly goes out into ALL the WORLD.

And in that world if ANY MAN has been enabled, they will hear.

In this I agree with the determinists.

It is The Son who 'sets free.' Men do not enable themselves. This does not however say that God does not have good intentions with NON-hearers. In this the determinist is very shortsighted.
Let’s be honest… Who did Jesus refer to when He said, “No one can come to me unless he is enabled by the Father? Are “all men” thus enabled? If so, why did Jesus draw any distinction at all?

It has been noted to freewillers at this site that man is NOT alone in their 'inabilities' to hear, and that all unbelievers are in fact BLINDED in mind by the 'god of this world.' Most determinists acknowledge this fact, and the like fact that God can and does REMOVE that blinder from the minds and hearts of those who HEAR and BELIEVE. And that God chooses NOT to remove the BLINDING PARTY from those who can NOT hear.
The use of “all men” here is not about God desiring “all men” to come to Him…

I believe Romans 11:25-32 sticks a solid spear into determinism regarding the blinded of Israel. Go read it. And don't bother returning to me with it. What you see will be just another personal reflection, accurate or not. I believe those statements are abundantly clear about THOSE WHO DO NOT HEAR. If you don't I would only say that God has also blocked your own ears.
This use of “all men” is like saying, “all men who come to the party will wear costumes.” It doesn’t at all mean that “all men” are invited to the party…

There are many ways to approach this subject. Predominantly WHY is it that some or even MOST do not hear.

I do not credibly see MAN ALONE as the sole cause of their NOT hearing. There are TWO OTHER CAUSES that are not the man.

A. God
B. 'the god of this world.'

It is impossible for man to have a freewill because neither A or B can be effectively ruled out.

The math becomes much more complex when ALL the parties are on the table for viewing. IF we insert C. the man and D. the man who hears and believes the math is even more complex, particularly when B, C and D have a myriad of individuals involved i.e. potentially billions of each.

It is, in short, a Divine Fiddle and a Divine Riddle that ONLY GOD is fit to play.

Freewillism is not able to address ALL these matters.

Neither are most forms of determinism.

Gods creation is much more complex than just those constructs.
A similar sentence: Anyone who comes to my house will be treated well.

Our actions will not be Gods Actions, but mere shadows.

I only say determinism can NOT logically be correct because factually we ALL see only IN PART. Therefore determinism is NOTHING more than partial sight, as are ALL freewill observations.

I would also say that nearly ALL these various views are strangely void of GODS interactions and intentions with the B player(s.) And instead fall only on MAN whom they see with their EYES.

There are factually OTHER THINGS going on that do NOT include MAN alone.

This use of “all men”, like John 3:16’s use of “whoever” or “whosoever”, means “those who do” rather than “anyone may”.

I'll deploy an easy example for you to ponder.

We both know that Peter (a blindman turned disciple turned Apostle) spoke GODS TRUTH as revealed to him FROM ABOVE.

yet...nearly instantaneously afterwards, SATAN shows up IN Peter and begins to resist Jesus, and Satan is REBUKED in PETER.

The drama just got much more interesting DIDN'T IT?

You can look at PETER all the day long, and without any Spiritual insight NONE of the other viewers SAW Satan.

But JESUS DID.

At that moment, you might realize that Jesus COULD have spoken EVERY damnation word in the Bible directly to PETERS FACE and it factually COULD be applied to SATAN in Peter. YET simultaneously EVERY SALVATION WORD could also be applied to PETER and been fully applicable to Peter and NOT SATAN.

The entirety of GODS WORDS could have been stated to ONE MAN in that equation but, PROPERLY DIVIDED those Words would have been SPLIT, half (the good words) to Peter and half (the bad words) to SATAN.

Chew on that for awhile and get back to me.

I predict that Calvinists will recognize the distinction and Arminians won’t…

-HisSheep

And I would say there are avenues of understandings that both Calvins and Arminians could learn more about that would begin to put these matters MORE into perspective.

That is my hope anyway.

enjoy!

smaller
 
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free:

In verse 6, "all men" once again means all men without exception

Thats not what vs 6 says !

And what Paul means is all of the elect of every station and class.

Paul knew it [salvation] was for only Gods Elect 2 tim 2:

10Therefore I endure all things for the elect's sakes, that they may also obtain the salvation which is in Christ Jesus with eternal glory.

All men without exception are of Gods elect, sorry,,
 
Isaiah 42:
4 He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the isles shall wait for his law.
5 Thus saith God the LORD, he that created the heavens, and stretched them out; he that spread forth the earth, and that which cometh out of it; he that giveth breath unto the people upon it, and spirit to them that walk therein:
6 I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles;
7 To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house.
 
You are forcing an interpretation into the text which isn't there.


Like I said...

What does this have to do with the discussion?



Firstly, no one is making the argument that "all men" always means "all men, in all times, in all places."

1 Tim 2:1-9:

1 First of all, then, I urge that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and thanksgivings be made for all people,
2 for kings and all who are in high positions, that we may lead a peaceful and quiet life, godly and dignified in every way.
3 This is good, and it is pleasing in the sight of God our Savior,
4 who desires all people to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth. 5 For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,
6 who gave himself as a ransom for all, which is the testimony given at the proper time.
7 For this I was appointed a preacher and an apostle (I am telling the truth, I am not lying), a teacher of the Gentiles in faith and truth.
8 I desire then that in every place the men should pray, lifting holy hands without anger or quarreling;
9 likewise also that women should adorn themselves in respectable apparel, with modesty and self-control, not with braided hair and gold or pearls or costly attire, (ESV)

Note that "all kinds" is not in all versions. And, no, the context does not necessarily support Paul speaking only "of 'all kinds or categories of men,'" especially since he lists only two. There is no reason to not believe a simple reading of the text which indicates that Paul is speaking of praying for everyone--in one's city, country, place of work, etc.--within the bounds of Scripture of course.


Not necessarily. Paul is instructing believers to pray for everyone, as in "all men"--the plain meaning. Verse 2 is redundant in the sense that Paul is just expanding on two particular categories of men. Your argument that my understanding would be redundant shoots itself in the foot since it is no different than you saying that Paul is speaking of kinds or categories of men in verse 1 and then mentioning two categories in verse 2.


And this I believe is the case. It is all I have ever heard preached on this verse the two different words used for God's "will" in the NT, the one in the passage in question meaning "desire." I think that is almost universally accepted.


I believe this to be a misapplication of the argument to context.


See Drew's arguments about how and why God uses people the way he does. Your argument is based on a misunderstanding of how God works in the world in relation to man's freewill and the way that God deals with man and intends to bring about final justice and restoration to all of Creation.


On one level, yes, of course it could mean that. But at the same time it can also mean that God, at every time in history, did, and does, actually desire that all men, in all places would come to salvation.

You are unnecessarily limiting the meaning of what a plain reading of the text would indicate.


There is only trouble if one ignores that those who are saved are those who believe in Christ's atoning sacrifice and choose to follow him. The NT is replete with verses stating such. In verse 6, "all men" once again means all men without exception. There is no tension at all.


Oh my. This is taking things way too far, much like your argument regarding the second verse. Praying in "all places" would simply mean praying wherever you are. To say that according to my arguments it means that each person must pray everywhere in the world is to throw common sense out the window and ignore a plain reading of the text.

This passage is in line with Paul saying that we should be in prayer continuously, at all times regardless of where we are.

Free, to summarize your post, you agree that the word "all" is used in a limited sense, in the sense of "all categories of men, in verses 1,2,6, and 8. But in the middle of the context you say the word "all" is universal in extent. Your only defense of your sudden change in the meaning of the term in this context is that it is the "plain" meaning of the verse. What grammatical reason do you give? Actually none. I cannot help but thing that you confuse the term "plain" with your own tradition, or your own presupposed understanding of the text.

Free, it seems to me your reading is very artificial. Just read verses 4-6. It begins with the "would have all men to be saved..." statement. Then in the next verse it talks about Christs mediation, then in verse 6 it says that he gave himself a ransom for all. You seem to be saying that the word "all" in verse 4 is "all men without exception." but then the mediation and ranson in verse 5-6 is not to be seen as in the same way. Such a reading is artificial and very inconsistent.
 
Free, to summarize your post, you agree that the word "all" is used in a limited sense, in the sense of "all categories of men, in verses 1,2,6, and 8. But in the middle of the context you say the word "all" is universal in extent. Your only defense of your sudden change in the meaning of the term in this context is that it is the "plain" meaning of the verse. What grammatical reason do you give? Actually none. I cannot help but thing that you confuse the term "plain" with your own tradition, or your own presupposed understanding of the text.

Free, it seems to me your reading is very artificial. Just read verses 4-6. It begins with the "would have all men to be saved..." statement. Then in the next verse it talks about Christs mediation, then in verse 6 it says that he gave himself a ransom for all. You seem to be saying that the word "all" in verse 4 is "all men without exception." but then the mediation and ranson in verse 5-6 is not to be seen as in the same way. Such a reading is artificial and very inconsistent.
On the contrary, it is much more consistent then your reading. I'll try and summarize:

1Ti 2:1 Therefore I exhort first of all that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks be made for all men,
1Ti 2:2 for kings and all who are in authority, that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and reverence.
1Ti 2:3 For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior,
1Ti 2:4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
1Ti 2:5 For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus,
1Ti 2:6 who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time, (NKJV)

In verse 1, "all" is referring to all men, in a limited sense since there is no prayer for salvation of the dead--"it is appointed for men to die once, but after this the judgment." (Heb 9:27, NKJV) So in the verse, as I stated, "all men" refers to everyone in one's city, country, place of work, etc. The needs of all people are seen everyday walking down the street and listening to the news.

Verse 2 is simply expanding on what was said in verse 1 by mentioning two particular groups, perhaps to remind the reader that even worldly authorities need our prayers. This is done often in Scripture.

What is "good and acceptable" to God? That which was just mentioned in verses 1 and 2--prayer for all people. This is because he desires all men, without exception, to be saved. This is a very plain and consistent reading of the text.

Verse 5 begins with "for," which provides further explanation of why we should pray and why he desires all men to be saved. That simple word ties verses 5 and 6 in with what was just mentioned. Verse 5 then, is saying that because there is one God, and Father, of everyone and only one Mediator, Jesus Christ, prayer for all is needed that they come to a saving "knowledge of the truth" because God desires all to be saved.

Verse 6 is self-explanatory. The only way all men can be saved, which is what God desires and why we are told to pray for all, is through the ransom which Christ gave for all.

In verses 4 and 6, "all men" would clearly be a universal meaning, it cannot be otherwise. If it isn't, then we would have to assert that only right now, at this very moment that we looked at the text, God desires only the people alive on the earth to be saved. But this is, of course, utterly absurd since someone rad this text yesterday, 500 years ago, 1900 years ago, and someone will read it next week. The plain and obvious understanding then is that at all points in time, God has desired all men to be saved, making the meaning universal.

Similarly, in verse 6, if the meaning isn't universal, then Jesus's ransom was only good for those alive when he died and rose again. But once again, that is clearly absurd.

This is a fairly simple text to understand and Paul clearly has all people in mind here. To suggest otherwise is to put some meaning into the text which is unwarranted. This is a completely consistent view of this passage and the meaning of "all men".
 
On the contrary, it is much more consistent then your reading. I'll try and summarize:

1Ti 2:1 Therefore I exhort first of all that supplications, prayers, intercessions, and giving of thanks be made for all men,
1Ti 2:2 for kings and all who are in authority, that we may lead a quiet and peaceable life in all godliness and reverence.
1Ti 2:3 For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior,
1Ti 2:4 who desires all men to be saved and to come to the knowledge of the truth.
1Ti 2:5 For there is one God and one Mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus,
1Ti 2:6 who gave Himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time, (NKJV)

In verse 1, "all" is referring to all men, in a limited sense since there is no prayer for salvation of the dead--"it is appointed for men to die once, but after this the judgment." (Heb 9:27, NKJV) So in the verse, as I stated, "all men" refers to everyone in one's city, country, place of work, etc. The needs of all people are seen everyday walking down the street and listening to the news.

Verse 2 is simply expanding on what was said in verse 1 by mentioning two particular groups, perhaps to remind the reader that even worldly authorities need our prayers. This is done often in Scripture.
And "particilar groups" is exactly my point.

What is "good and acceptable" to God? That which was just mentioned in verses 1 and 2--prayer for all people. This is because he desires all men, without exception, to be saved. This is a very plain and consistent reading of the text.
Whenever I see you use the term "plain meaning" or "plain and consistent," your response is all about reading your tradition back into the text. Your obviously trying to work with the context because you make observations, but the observations are often unrelated to our present discussion. An example of this is your discussion on the word "for" below. No one disputes that verses 5-8 are an extension of verses 1 and 2 and the subject of prayer. Then you assume that the word "for" proves that your tradition correctly reads the text. The word "For" (gar in Greek) is a post positive conjunction. Its does not define the word "pas," but merely serves to join verse 5 to the preceding context (something no one disputes).

You behavior here or your words here only serve to muddy the waters while you grasp at anything to change the meaning of the word "All" (pas pasa pan) in this context.

Verse 5 begins with "for," which provides further explanation of why we should pray and why he desires all men to be saved. That simple word ties verses 5 and 6 in with what was just mentioned. Verse 5 then, is saying that because there is one God, and Father, of everyone and only one Mediator, Jesus Christ, prayer for all is needed that they come to a saving "knowledge of the truth" because God desires all to be saved.

Verse 6 is self-explanatory. The only way all men can be saved, which is what God desires and why we are told to pray for all, is through the ransom which Christ gave for all.

In verses 4 and 6, "all men" would clearly be a universal meaning, it cannot be otherwise. If it isn't, then we would have to assert that only right now, at this very moment that we looked at the text, God desires only the people alive on the earth to be saved.
This is really very bad argumentation. It is called a straw man argument. No one asserts that only the people on earth at this time would be saved. I did not say it, and no one else said it.

From the beginning I have defined the word "all" as referring to "all kinds or categories" of men. I am reading the word this way throughout the entire context. There is no reason in either the semantic range of the term "pas" or in the local context why it must be understood as "only the people on the earth."

But this is, of course, utterly absurd since someone rad this text yesterday, 500 years ago, 1900 years ago, and someone will read it next week. The plain and obvious understanding then is that at all points in time, God has desired all men to be saved, making the meaning universal.
Free, you are in way over your head. Your basic argument is in claiming to have the "plain and obvious understanding." To make such a claim is simply intellectual suicide. So far, its all you have is to repeat the claim of "obvious" or "natural" reading over and over again. It is a claim that a person who is ignorant of semantic range of the word "pas" would make. Also someone who does not have the ability to determine the meaning of words and how they are related to context.

I guess I am making an ad-homonym argument here. But when you continue to make the same old statements that a universal meaning of the term "all" must mean "all men without exception," and then make no defense of your position other then to claim it is "natural" or "obvious," and then go on to make other straw men statments that only serve to muddy the waters of the discussion, at this point I cannot help but question your ability to actually understand the issues and do actual work in the context of the passage under discussion. It would be good if you would sharpen your bible study tools. Have you ever taken a course in greek grammar? Or even a course in basic word study tools?


Similarly, in verse 6, if the meaning isn't universal, then Jesus's ransom was only good for those alive when he died and rose again. But once again, that is clearly absurd.

This is a fairly simple text to understand and Paul clearly has all people in mind here. To suggest otherwise is to put some meaning into the text which is unwarranted. This is a completely consistent view of this passage and the meaning of "all men".[/QUOTE]

Well, lets just forget the "only good for those alive when he died" mumbo jumbo. It is very clear to me that you are just trying to muddy the waters of our discussion. It has nothing to do with anyones claims.

One thing we should focus on is that verses 5 and 6 are one sentence in most translations. So then, when we talk of the "ransom," we should also talk of Christs mediation. They go together. It is one sentence. If he is the ransom, he is also the mediator for all men. If he is the mediation and appeals his shed blood for all men wihout exception, then either his mediation fails, or we should all become universalists. If his mediation is only for some, and not for all men without exception, then in verse 4, God wants all categories of men to be saved, but not all men without exception.

Free, so far you are as universalist as other universalists, except you are inconsistent.
 
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