Jesus died for those it was promised that He shall save from their sins Matt 1:
21And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.[which means by the way, those he does not save from their sins were not his people]
Thats the promise, all else is speculation and doctrines of men and devils.
Lk 19:
10For the Son of man is come to seek and to save that which was lost.[which means those He came to seek and to save are not lost but found]
He came to do His Fathers will, that all the Father hath given Him, He should loose nothing Jn 6:
39And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given [perfect tense] me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
The word for will here is the greek word:
thelēma:
what one wishes or has determined shall be done
a) of the purpose of God to bless mankind through Christ
b) of what God wishes to be done by us
1) commands, precepts
2) will, choice, inclination, desire, pleasure
All that He hath given me indicates all who has been chosen by the Father, and has been given [ once and for all in the past time with effects into the present] by the Father to the Son for salvation and to give eternal life Jn 10:
26But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.
27My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:
28And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
29My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.
30I and my Father are one.
Now in light of the afore mentioned scriptures, how do we or should understand 1 tim 2:
4Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth.
Who is it that desires this ? Is it not the Father of Jesus Christ who sent Him to do His will ?
Are the same people in view in 1 tim 2 4 as is in Jn 6:39 ?
Where it is said of Jesus, that He should not loose nothing !!
What about those in 2 pet 3 :
9The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us-ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
Are the ones here, whom God is not willing that any should perish, the same as the ones in Jn 6:39 ?
If so, then the conclusion is , it is The Fathers will for the Son to save all and bring all to repentance as indicated, and if the Son does not, and looses some, that they perish, then He has not done His Fathers will. If any do perish that Christ is to save, according to His Fathers will [jn 6:39] then Christ has failed in executing His Fathers will, because some has perished, whom His Father was not willing to perish [ 2 pet 3:9], hence, Christ was a disappointment and not a complete Saviour.
He may have sought that was lost lk 19:10, but He did not save all that was lost.
This is the dilemma we have if we say that Christ died for all men without exception to save them, but yet all men without exception are not saved, and some of them perish in their sins.
