I should have been more clear when i said "prove to be false".
Not found in scripture doesn't prove it's false.
The Catechism covers many things that aren't in the bible.
Take purgatory for example. Not being in the bible casts doubt on it. But proving it is false would require the bible to say there is no purgatory. See the difference. The bible doesn't tell us it's true but it doesn't tell us it's not true either. There's no contradiction.
There is a strong case against perpetual virginity. Scripture tells us Jesus had siblings and we are told that Joseph and Mary didn't consecrated their marriage until Jesus was born. The Catholic responses to these are weak but it does cast some doubt over the evidence being conclusive.
How? Through the Holy Spirit is the response I was getting.
That's why the RCC claim their teachings don't need to be from scripture.
The doctrines that I think are in direct contradiction to scripture are Mary mediatrix and Mary co-redemptrix. The NT clearly tells us that only Jesus is our mediator and only Jesus can redeem us, John's gospel is all about this.
The only type of responses I got for these were hostile accusations of disrespecting Mary. One forum even banned me.
So there are RCC teachings that aren't supported by scripture but do u know of any more that have conclusive proof against them?
I did say that the CC basis its beliefs on the bible.
The CCC has footnotes and many of them are from scripture.
As to Mary,,,yes, calling her co-redemptrix; however one wants to understand the word "co" and there are two different ways. it is still not correct. I think the veneration of Mary...which I feel is fine...has gone beyond the line and into worship. This Pope does have the right idea about this..I think it's you that stated he called it nonsense...if it wasn't you, then I'LL say it because he did state this.
That church will say that some doctrine is from scripture and some is from oral Tradition.
Conclusive proof?
All the Mariology Dogma.
The Assumption.
How did they come up with this?
Because Mary was born immaculate so the reasoning is that her body could not be made to deocompose. (1954)
The Immaculate Conception.
Since Mary was to be the Mother of God, she had to have been born free of Original Sin. (1860's?)
Which brings up a nice problem.... Does this mean that God knew she would say yes and prepared her for her role as Mother of Jesus? Does God then ACT beforehand because He foreknows something? Was Gabriel ASKING Mary to bear Jesus, or was he TELLIING her she would be? Luke 1:31, 35
What about some of the Sacraments?
I just looked up the Annointing of the Sick in my CCC and I get the following verses:
James 5:14-16
Romans 8:17
Col 1:24
2 Tim 2:11-12
1 Peter 4:13
That's a mouthful !
But should it be a sacrament?
And so it goes.
I don't know how to prove a negative.
Some of what they teach seems wrong to me.
Confession took hundreds of years to develop. Why?
Why didn't the Early Church Fathers mention this?
I do say that every denomination should teach what they deem to be correct. There are also Protestant denominations that, IMO, teach wrong doctrine...we're all in the same boat though...
Jesus is the Captain .