Dadof10 wrote:
“LOL...Paul didn't say it didn't matter. "Food will not commend us to God. We are no worse off if we do not eat, and no better off if we do.”
Well, that is pretty much saying it doesn’t matter what we eat. So yes, he did say it doesn’t matter. Now he did say don’t do something that offends a weak brother. A WEAK brother. Those of us who understand the message of grace still have a responsibility.
You are taking one verse out of the context of an idea. Paul is not saying it doesn't matter if Gentiles eat meat sacrificed to idols and that's it ("eat it and be happy"). He's saying the meat itself means nothing because the idols are nothing but eating it will cause a scandal, so it's better to not eat it, which is probably the basis for the letter from Jerusalem.
Now what did James say?
Act 15:29
That ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication: from which if ye keep yourselves, ye shall do well, Fare ye well.
Paul didn’t say that. He said it doesn’t matter, but don’t use your liberty foolishly. And by the way, it was James and James alone who said this. He was the council. The council went along with it, but it was James’ decision alone.
If the council went along with it, the entire council is responsible, not James alone. The plain words of Scripture say the authoritative letter was written by "
The brethren, both the apostles and the elders, to the brethren who are of the Gentiles in Antioch and Syria and Cilicia, greeting."
Who is it from, Slider, James alone?
It continues: "Since
we have heard that some persons from
us have troubled you with words, unsettling your minds, although
we gave them no instructions, 25 it has seemed good to
us, having come to one accord,"
Now, Slider. Was it James only or "the brethren, both the apostles and elders...having come to one accord" who sent this authoritative letter?
One person can suggest something which is then adopted by the group. This happens all the time and happened here.
Dadof10 wrote:
“As I said to Stormcrow, these four ordinances were particularly abhorrent to the Jewish converts and therefore were to be avoided by Gentile converts for the reasons given by Paul. There is no contradiction here.”
No, they were only not to be done when WEAK Jewish converts were around as to not offend them.
I think we're mixing two things here and getting confused. I'll try and be more clear. These four ordinances that were in the letter were particularly abhorrent to the Jewish mind. Even though there was NO SIN (as Paul said in 1Cor.), eating meat sacrificed to idols was still to be avoided so the Gentiles wouldn't offend Jewish sensibilities, both converts and potential converts. I don't think Paul had in mind a group of people sneaking around eating meat behind Jewish converts back. "Go ahead and eat it, just don't get caught". As he said in 1Cor. "Therefore, if food is a cause of my brother's falling,
I will never eat meat, lest I cause my brother to fall." This is ostensibly the reason for that particular ordinance.
However, Paul got in Peter’s face about this very subject. When the Jewish big wigs came around, Peter got all holy and obeyed the law, didn’t he?
No, he didn't. The "rebuke" was about how Peter behaved in public. "For before certain men came from James, he ate with the Gentiles; but when they came he drew back and separated himself, fearing the circumcision party." Jews were not allowed to eat with Gentiles, but Peter, now being Christian, could (remember his dream). Instead of simply telling this to the men who came from James, Peter withdrew, "and with him the rest of the Jews acted insincerely", which means refused to eat with Gentiles. Peter's mistake was his "insincerity", not his attempt to follow the law.
I have to admit, this confuses me. However it seems clear that we as gentiles have liberty, but we shouldn’t use it so boldly when WEAK Christians are around. Let them get strong, then have liberty.
It is confusing trying to decipher which things applied to the Jewish and Gentile converts. Suffice to say, there seems to have been a time early on when there were different rules for each group.
I said:
“Furthermore, James put these restricitons on the Gentiles. He didn't put them on believing Jews. “
Dadof10 responded:
“The council (not James alone) put these restrictions on them for the SAKE OF THE JEWISH CONVERTS.”
Oh really? Not James’ alone? I’m looking at Acts 15 right now and all I see is James speaking. And how you come to the conclusion that it was for the sake of the Jewish converts is beyond me seeing as how he was describing how Paul should preach to the Gentiles.
"Therefore my judgment is that we should not trouble those of the Gentiles who turn to God, 20 but should write to them to abstain from the pollutions of idols and from unchastity and from what is strangled and from blood. 21 For from early generations Moses has had in every city those who preach him, for he is read every sabbath in the synagogues." (Acts (RSV) 15)
Why would James say this if it wasn't at least a consideration?
I wrote:
“The way it reads, James still put the law on Jews who believed in Jesus. “
Dadof10 wrote:
“What verse gives you that idea? I don't see that at all.”
Act 15:19
Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God:
James (and James alone, no other member of the council added to this sentence) said “we shouldn’t trouble “THEM”. He never cleared the way for Jewish converts. He said don’t trouble the gentiles.
How does this translate into James "put the law on the Jews"? The council was dealing with a specific heresy. They didn't take up the subject of Jewish converts.
I wrote:
“The fact is that Paul cared little for what the council had to say. He preached what Christ gave him. Paul went against the council. “
Dadof10 wrote:
“Then Paul went against the Holy Spirit. The plain words of Scripture are "For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us..." The Holy Spirit guided the Elders to their decision, of course Paul obeyed.”
Well, you said it, not me.
No, you are saying it. Don't put this ludicrous statement on me. If you believe, like you said "
Paul went against the council" and the Holy Spirit guided the council to their decision, which, according to scripture, He did, then the only logical conclusion YOU can make is that Paul "went against" the Holy Spirit. Nice try.
Did Paul preach what James told him to? No. James said what he thought was the “Holy Spirit” was telling him.
Wow, that's quite presumptuous. There is not one hint THE COUNCIL only THOUGHT the Holy Spirit was guiding their decision.
2
Paul preached differently. And in case I’m wrong, I have a verse that says if angels preach something different than what Paul preached, they are cursed. James said it was the Holy Spirit, Paul didn’t. And Paul preached differently.
Quite an interesting way of exegesis. Please read it again. JAMES didn't say it was the Holy Spirit, THE COUNCIL DID. Here are the relevant verses AGAIN.
"They sent Judas called Barsabbas, and Silas, leading men among the brethren, 23 with the following letter: "
The brethren, both the apostles and the elders, to the brethren who are of the Gentiles in Antioch and Syria and Cilicia, greeting. 24 Since we have heard that some persons from us have troubled you with words, unsettling your minds, although we gave them no instructions, 25 it has seemed good to us,
having come to one accord, to choose men and send them to you with our beloved Barnabas and Paul, 26 men who have risked their lives for the sake of our Lord Jesus Christ. 27 We have therefore sent Judas and Silas, who themselves will tell you the same things by word of mouth. 28
For it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things: 29 that you abstain from what has been sacrificed to idols and from blood and from what is strangled and from unchastity. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell." (Acts (RSV) 15)
Note:
The brethren, both the apostles and the elders...sent the letter, not James alone.
Note:
it has seemed good to the Holy Spirit and to us... The Holy Spirit and US, not James alone.
Dadof10 wrote:
“You are missing the bigger picture here, Slider. What was OMITTED from the decision was the ordinance on circumcision, which was the purpose for the council in the first place.”
No, I’m actually getting the bigger picture! The smaller theatre is that of circumcision and dietary practices. That was what was being talked about, but the bigger picture is grace overall. James was preaching rules and Paul was saying grace covers everything in the flesh. It was circumcision and dietary rules that were being brought up.
More creative interpretation. I guess at this point you can talk your way into the words meaning anything.
But back to the main point. No, Paul didn’t obey. He didn’t care about the Churches ruling. And it was James’ alone. He passed it, and yes, the council went along with it, but it was James’ decision.
Totally debunked above.
The fact is that James freed Gentiles from many Jewish customs. He didn’t free Jews from those customs, only the Gentiles. And he placed restrictions on the Gentiles that Paul didn’t place on them.
What restrictions? Please elaborate. And please use the actual words of Scripture.
I shoot from the hip about many things in the Bible, but this is one thing I’ve studied deeply. James and Paul were not on the same page and Paul didn’t care one lick about the Council’s (James’) decision.
If you say so.