I read those verses and think they are very convincing of a pre trib rapture. I will try to lay it out as how I read them.
1. I believe that there are 2 distinct comings of the Lord. The rapture and the second advent. The rapture, He does not step foot on the Ground and the 2nd advent He comes to reign. Do you see it like this?
The most famous of the pre-Trib rapture passages is 1 Thess 4:13-18, but there isn't anything there to indicate that He returns to Heaven. Just that believers will meet Him in the air.
"13But we do not want you to be uninformed, brethren, about those who are asleep, so that you will not grieve as do the rest who have no hope. 14For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so
God will bring with Him those who have fallen asleep in Jesus. 15For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord, will not precede those who have fallen asleep. 16For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangeland with the trumpet of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first.17Then we who are alive and remain will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and so we shall always be with the Lord. 18Therefore comfort one another withthese words." NASB
First, notice that "God will bring with Him those who have fallen asleep in Jesus". Why would those who have already died come with Jesus for a pre-Trib rapture? I see no purpose, nor is one given in Scripture. In fact, Rev 20:4 mentions those who "came to life and reigned with CVhrist 1,000 years". If the rapture is pre-Trib, all who have died in Christ would already have been raised or come alive, 7 yrs earlier.
Second, v.15 says "the coming of the Lord". How can this not be the "Second Coming"? I do not see 2 distinct "comings" of the Lord. I believe that is being "read into the passage". It's really not there.
When Christ returns to earth at the end of the Trib, to rule for 1,000 years on earth, He will bring those who have already died, plus all believers currently alive on earth will be "caught up together with them in the clouds" (v.17). 1 Thess 4:13-18 says nothing about the Lord returning to Heaven, which is the pre-Trib view.
2. In vs 1 "the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ" is the rapture, when He comes in the air.
The issue is that in 2 Thess 2:1, if referring to a pre-Trib rapture, that it doesn't occur UNTIL "the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed". This is obviously referring to the Trib and the antichrist. So, if 2:1 refers to a pre-Trib coming and rapture, then it cannot occur before the Trib and antichrist is revealed.
Do you see the contradiction? The only solution is that 2:1 refers to the Second Coming and rapture as occurring together, which "cannot come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed". v.3
3. In vs 2 "the day of the lord" refers to the 2nd advent,when He comes to the earth. And THAT day does not come until after the trib and man of lawlessness is revealed.
Again, I see a problem with the fact that the subject of ch 2 is the "coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to Him" (NIV). That is the context for v.1-12.
I don't see why Paul would mention the rapture and then in the next verse change subjects and then refer to the Second Advent. I believe the "coming of our Lord" and the "day of the Lord" are the same thing here in 2 Thess 2.
We get a clue from the forged letter that Paul was addressing. this letter was most likely from the Jews and they did not believe in the rapture but they sure wanted their King to come. The forged letter to the Thessalonians was a false teaching that the day of the lord had come and they were worried they missed the Rapture. Paul had to address that the trib comes before the "day of the lord" because the Forged letter said that the "day of the Lord" was at hand.
I don't see how this applies to a pre-Trib rapture. From v.1-4, it seems that Paul is saying that the rapture will not come until the Tribulation and the revealing of the antichrist.
So the forged letter in vs 2 was missing the rapture but taught the "Day of the Lord" had come. (And they were still here!) The Jews fully believed in the day of the Lord,but not the rapture. So Pauls main point was to address that the "day of the Lord" had not come. And He lays out the criteria for the Day of the Lord, the rapture was naturally before the "day of the Lord" and the Trib.
Make sense?
I hope my explanations are helpful. Whether the Jews believed in a rapture doesn't impact the issue. The phrase "day of the Lord" throughout Scripture refers to the Second Coming.
Also, compare these passages for similarities:
1 Cor 15:51-52, 1 Thess 4:13-18 and Matt 24:30-31. The key here is that Matt 24 specifically indicates that His return happened "after the Tribulation".
I don't see any problems with a post-Trib rapture. It seems to me to be that Christ gathers those believers who are "still alive and remain" (1 Cor 15) when He returns to rule the earth for the Millennium. Recall that Christ comes with all who have already died in Him (2 Thess 2:1). I see no reason why Christ would bring all of them just to rapture believers who are alive on earth before the Trib.