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The Saving results of the Death of Christ !

brightfame52 said:
According to the scripture I provided, How was this sanctification accomplished ?
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justified /sanctified are of the same family meanings /but different sanctification is a on going process .where was justification is a one time event we are forgiven case closed. sanctified is on going set apart when saved positional placed in the Body of Christ. progressive we become a work in progress we grow in the grace and knowledge . then our finial stage we made it home we have a glorified body with no sin. btw all this is done by the Holy spirit changed from glory to glory might i add none of this is possible with out the cross and Jesus done for us payment of future present past. paid in full .the resurrections gives us the new life
 
A companion verse of Heb 10:10 which confirms the saving result of them Christ died for, namely His Sheep, its Heb 10:14

14 For by one offering[His death] he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.

Now who are the them that are sanctified ? Look again at Heb 10:10, and how were they sanctified ? Now these by that same means, Christs death are said to be perfected forever ! This includes their Justification before God, a complete cleansing of all the guilt of their sins. And that for ever ! 10
 
brightfame52 said:
The religion of man doesn't believe that the death of Christ alone results in the Eternal Salvation of all for whom Christ died, namely His Sheep Jn 10:11,15 or His Church Eph 5:25, or His People Matt 1:21.

His death for His people produces saving results Jn 12:32-33 23,24

32 And I, if I be lifted up from the earth, will draw all men unto me. 33 This he said, signifying what death he should die.

23 And Jesus answered them, saying, The hour is come, that the Son of man should be glorified. 24 Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except a corn of wheat fall into the ground and die, it abideth alone: but if it die, it bringeth forth much fruit.
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I thought that Jesus died for the world?


For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life. John 3:16



JLB
 
brightfame52 said:
The Death of Christ alone saved them he died for, namely the Elect, the Sheep, since by His One Offering they were sanctified unto God once and for all Heb 10:10

10 By the which will we are sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.5
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By that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all. Hebrews 10:10


He was sacrificed once and for all people, unlike the animal sacrifices that were offered continually year after year.


It’s by His one sacrifice that we are sanctified.




JLB
 
brightfame52 said:
A companion verse of Heb 10:10 which confirms the saving result of them Christ died for, namely His Sheep, its Heb 10:14

14 For by one offering[His death] he hath perfected for ever them that are sanctified.

Now who are the them that are sanctified ? Look again at Heb 10:10, and how were they sanctified ? Now these by that same means, Christs death are said to be perfected forever ! This includes their Justification before God, a complete cleansing of all the guilt of their sins. And that for ever ! 10
Click to expand...


By that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
And every priest stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins. But this Man, after He had offered one sacrifice for sins forever, sat down at the right hand of God, from that time waiting till His enemies are made His footstool. For by one offering He has perfected forever those who are being sanctified.
Hebrews 10:10-14

Yes, I agree verse 14 is a companion to verse 10.

His sacrifice was sufficient for all people.


How is His sacrifice applied to all the world in which He died for?


Is all the world saved, or is there something each of us must do, in order for His sacrifice to benefit us unto salvation?


JLB
 
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brightfame52 said:
The Death of Christ has freed them He died for from the guilt of sin.
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He died for the world.

For God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him should not perish but have everlasting life. John 3:16


Is the world free from sin?


Each person in the world must believe in order for his sacrifice to bring about salvation in their lives.




JLB
 
jerry63935 said:
justified /sanctified are of the same family meanings /but different sanctification is a on going process .where was justification is a one time event we are forgiven case closed. sanctified is on going set apart when saved positional placed in the Body of Christ. progressive we become a work in progress we grow in the grace and knowledge . then our finial stage we made it home we have a glorified body with no sin. btw all this is done by the Holy spirit changed from glory to glory might i add none of this is possible with out the cross and Jesus done for us payment of future present past. paid in full .the resurrections gives us the new life
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You failed to answer mu question sir. According to Heb 10:10 how were they sanctified, not made possible.
 
brightfame52 said:
Now who are the them that are sanctified ?
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you keep asking questions. but fail to answer mine those who have been saved are the sanctified . Christ does not condemn people to hell. john 3:17 “For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.”
 
brightfame52 said:
You failed to answer mu question sir. According to Heb 10:10 how were they sanctified, not made possible.
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jerry63935 said:
you keep asking questions. but fail to answer mine those who have been saved are the sanctified . Christ does not condemn people to hell. john 3:17 “For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.”
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Let’s please try to answer each other’s questions.


Can each person ask one question, and the other answer?

Then let the one who answered have a turn at asking one question. We can all benefit that way.


This is a good thread, let’s not let it degrade into bickering.

Please.



JLB
 
JLB said:
By that will we have been sanctified through the offering of the body of Jesus Christ once for all.
And every priest stands ministering daily and offering repeatedly the same sacrifices, which can never take away sins. But this Man, after He had offered one sacrifice for sins forever, sat down at the right hand of God, from that time waiting till His enemies are made His footstool. For by one offering He has perfected forever those who are being sanctified.
Hebrews 10:10-14

Yes, I agree verse 14 is a companion to verse 10.

His sacrifice was sufficient for all people.


How is His sacrifice applied to all the world in which He died for?


Is all the world saved, or is there something each of us must do, in order for His sacrifice to benefit us unto salvation?


JLB
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It says nothing about being sufficient for all people. Its stating that His Sacrifice produced results. What are those results in Heb 10:10 and in Heb 10:14 ?
 
Exegesis of John 3:16
God so loved the world”. Many suppose that this means, ‘The entire human race.’ But “the entire human race,” includes all mankind from Adam till the close of the earth’s history! Consider, the history of mankind before Christ was born. Unnumbered millions lived and died before the Savior came to the earth, Ephesians 2:12 “having no hope and without God in the world”, and therefore went to hell. If God “loved” them (or those today that have not heard the salvific gospel), where is the slightest proof? “Who (God) in times past (from the tower of Babel till after Pentecost) suffered all nations to walk in their own ways” (Acts 14:16). God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do things which are improper and repulsive (Romans 1:28). To Israel God said, “You only have I known of all the families of the earth” (Amos 3:2).(Aside: God speaks to KNOWING people, not plan or events). Thus, how can one insist that God in the past loved all mankind! Read the 20th chapter of the Revelation, the great white throne judgment, and see if you can discover there the slightest trace of love (agape LOVE is defined as "a volition to favor". These people spend 99.9999999999% of their lives (pre and post death) in hell .. how could this be an illustration of God's volition to favor (love). (To put it in the vernacular, with friends like that, who needs enemies .)
John 3:16 and says, “World means world”. True, but that “the world” does not mean the whole human family." The world” is used in a general way. When the brethren of Christ said, “Shew Thyself to the world” (John 7:4), did they mean “shew Thyself to all mankind” (ridiculous)? When the Pharisees said, “Behold, the world is gone after Him” (John 12:19), did they mean that “all the human family” were flocking after Him (ridiculous)? When the apostle wrote, “Your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world” (Romans 1:8), did he mean that the faith of the saints at Rome was the subject of conversation by every man, woman, and child on the earth (ridiculous)? These, and other passages (John 14:17; John 15:19; John 16:20; John 17:14; etc.) which might be quoted, show that the term “the world” often has a relative rather than an absolute force. (In the vernacular ... when you assume you may an "butt" of "u" and "me". ("Butt" substituted for first syllable).
John 3:16 was Christ’s announcement that God had a purpose of grace toward Gentiles as well as Jews. “God so loved the world”, then, signifies, God’s love is international in its scope (non-Jews also). But does this mean that God loves every individual among the Gentiles? Not necessarily, for as we have seen, the term “world” is general rather than specific, relative rather than absolute. The term “world” in itself is not conclusive. To figure out who are the objects of God’s love other passages where His love is mentioned must be consulted. In 2 Peter 2:5 we read of “the world of the ungodly”. If then, there is a world of the ungodly there must also be a world of the godly. It is the latter who are in view in the passages we shall now briefly consider. “For the bread of God is He which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world” (John 6:33). Now mark it well, Christ did not say, “offereth life unto the world”, but “giveth”. What is the difference between the two terms? This: a thing which is “offered” may be refused, but a thing “given”, necessarily implies its acceptance. If it is not accepted, it is not “given”, it is simply proffered. Here, then, is a scripture that positively states Christ giveth life (spiritual, eternal life) “unto the world.” Now He does not give eternal life to the “world of the ungodly” for they will not have it, they do not want it. Hence, we are obliged to understand the reference in John 6:33 as being to “the world of the godly”, i.e., God’s own people.
Romans 9:25 As indeed he says in Hosea, “Those who were not my people I will call ‘my people’, and her who was not beloved I will call ‘beloved’.” [An example of a group of people who were not loved becoming loved which contradicts the thought that God loves everyone]

World is a nonspecific term for humanity in a general sense. The statement in verse 17, “that the world might be saved through Him,” proves that it does not mean everyone who has ever lived, since all will not be saved. Verse 16 clearly cannot be teaching universal salvation, since the context promises that unbelievers will perish in eternal judgment (vv. 16–18). John MacArthur – New Testament Commentary
 
so far your behind on answering questions .the ball is in your court
JLB said:
This is a good thread, let’s not let it degrade into bickering.
Click to expand...
its not bickering its a discussion. if you want to Engauge be my guest otherwise just let it be
 
Fastfredy0 said:
Exegesis of John 3:16
God so loved the world”. Many suppose that this means, ‘The entire human race.’ But “the entire human race,” includes all mankind from Adam till the close of the earth’s history! Consider, the history of mankind before Christ was born. Unnumbered millions lived and died before the Savior came to the earth, Ephesians 2:12 “having no hope and without God in the world”, and therefore went to hell. If God “loved” them (or those today that have not heard the salvific gospel), where is the slightest proof? “Who (God) in times past (from the tower of Babel till after Pentecost) suffered all nations to walk in their own ways” (Acts 14:16). God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do things which are improper and repulsive (Romans 1:28). To Israel God said, “You only have I known of all the families of the earth” (Amos 3:2).(Aside: God speaks to KNOWING people, not plan or events). Thus, how can one insist that God in the past loved all mankind! Read the 20th chapter of the Revelation, the great white throne judgment, and see if you can discover there the slightest trace of love (agape LOVE is defined as "a volition to favor". These people spend 99.9999999999% of their lives (pre and post death) in hell .. how could this be an illustration of God's volition to favor (love). (To put it in the vernacular, with friends like that, who needs enemies .)
John 3:16 and says, “World means world”. True, but that “the world” does not mean the whole human family." The world” is used in a general way. When the brethren of Christ said, “Shew Thyself to the world” (John 7:4), did they mean “shew Thyself to all mankind” (ridiculous)? When the Pharisees said, “Behold, the world is gone after Him” (John 12:19), did they mean that “all the human family” were flocking after Him (ridiculous)? When the apostle wrote, “Your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world” (Romans 1:8), did he mean that the faith of the saints at Rome was the subject of conversation by every man, woman, and child on the earth (ridiculous)? These, and other passages (John 14:17; John 15:19; John 16:20; John 17:14; etc.) which might be quoted, show that the term “the world” often has a relative rather than an absolute force. (In the vernacular ... when you assume you may an "butt" of "u" and "me". ("Butt" substituted for first syllable).
John 3:16 was Christ’s announcement that God had a purpose of grace toward Gentiles as well as Jews. “God so loved the world”, then, signifies, God’s love is international in its scope (non-Jews also). But does this mean that God loves every individual among the Gentiles? Not necessarily, for as we have seen, the term “world” is general rather than specific, relative rather than absolute. The term “world” in itself is not conclusive. To figure out who are the objects of God’s love other passages where His love is mentioned must be consulted. In 2 Peter 2:5 we read of “the world of the ungodly”. If then, there is a world of the ungodly there must also be a world of the godly. It is the latter who are in view in the passages we shall now briefly consider. “For the bread of God is He which cometh down from heaven, and giveth life unto the world” (John 6:33). Now mark it well, Christ did not say, “offereth life unto the world”, but “giveth”. What is the difference between the two terms? This: a thing which is “offered” may be refused, but a thing “given”, necessarily implies its acceptance. If it is not accepted, it is not “given”, it is simply proffered. Here, then, is a scripture that positively states Christ giveth life (spiritual, eternal life) “unto the world.” Now He does not give eternal life to the “world of the ungodly” for they will not have it, they do not want it. Hence, we are obliged to understand the reference in John 6:33 as being to “the world of the godly”, i.e., God’s own people.
Romans 9:25 As indeed he says in Hosea, “Those who were not my people I will call ‘my people’, and her who was not beloved I will call ‘beloved’.” [An example of a group of people who were not loved becoming loved which contradicts the thought that God loves everyone]

World is a nonspecific term for humanity in a general sense. The statement in verse 17, “that the world might be saved through Him,” proves that it does not mean everyone who has ever lived, since all will not be saved. Verse 16 clearly cannot be teaching universal salvation, since the context promises that unbelievers will perish in eternal judgment (vv. 16–18). John MacArthur – New Testament Commentary
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i have listened to john a few times// BUT i dont agree with his doctrine. i have used my own thoughts with scripture so i reject his comments
 
jerry63935 said:
you keep asking questions. but fail to answer mine those who have been saved are the sanctified . Christ does not condemn people to hell. john 3:17 “For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.”
Click to expand...
Them that are sanctified are simply them He offered Himself for.
 
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