Jesus was in heaven when this was written:
Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
Okay, and what does it prove? The entire NT was written while Jesus was in heaven, including:
Act 2:25 For David says concerning
him, “‘I saw
the Lord always before me, for he is at my right hand that I may not be shaken;
Act 2:26 therefore my heart was glad, and my tongue rejoiced; my flesh also will dwell in hope.
Act 2:27 For you will not abandon my soul to Hades, or let your Holy One see corruption.
Act 2:28 You have made known to me the paths of life; you will make me full of gladness with your presence.’ (ESV)
Who is the "him" that Peter is speaking of here? It is clearly Jesus:
Act 2:23
this Jesus, delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God, you crucified and killed by the hands of lawless men.
Act 2:24 God raised
him up, loosing the pangs of death, because it was not possible for
him to be held by it. (ESV)
The context is that of Jesus's death and resurrection, hence his quote of Ps. 16:8-11:
Psa 16:8 I have set
the LORD always before me; because he is at my right hand, I shall not be shaken.
Psa 16:9 Therefore my heart is glad, and my whole being rejoices; my flesh also dwells secure.
Psa 16:10 For you will not abandon my soul to Sheol, or let your holy one see corruption.
Psa 16:11 You make known to me the path of life; in your presence there is fullness of joy; at your right hand are pleasures forevermore. (ESV)
But, clearly Ps. 16 is speaking about Yahweh, hence the capital "LORD." It is worth nothing that YHWH was translated into Greek as
kurios in the Septuagint, which is also why the NT does the same. More than that, we see this in Hebrews 1:
Heb 1:8
But of the Son he says, . . .
Heb 1:10 And, “You,
Lord, laid the foundation of the earth in the beginning, and the heavens are the work of your hands;
Heb 1:11 they will perish, but you remain; they will all wear out like a garment,
Heb 1:12 like a robe you will roll them up, like a garment they will be changed. But you are the same, and your years will have no end.” (ESV)
Who is speaking "of the Son"? The Father, obviously. And what he says is from another Psalm, which is attributed to Yahweh:
Psa 102:25 Of old you laid the foundation of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands.
Psa 102:26 They will perish, but you will remain; they will all wear out like a garment. You will change them like a robe, and they will pass away,
Psa 102:27 but you are the same, and your years have no end. (ESV)
So, we have both Peter and the writer of Hebrews strongly implying that the Son is also Yahweh. Then we have Paul:
Rom 10:9 because, if you confess with your mouth that
Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
Rom 10:10 For with the heart one believes and is justified, and with the mouth one confesses and is saved.
...
Rom 10:13 For “everyone who calls on the name of
the Lord will be saved.” (ESV)
Paul is clearly equating confessing that "Jesus is Lord" with calling "on the name of the Lord," for salvation. And, as you likely know, verse 13 is a quote from Joel 2:32: "And it shall come to pass that everyone who calls on the name of
the LORD shall be saved." (ESV)
Paul, too, is strongly implying that Jesus, the Son, is also Yahweh. Of course, that is only one of several times he does so.
And John also does so throughout his gospel, not the least of which is:
Joh 12:36 While you have the light, believe in the light, that you may become sons of light.” When Jesus had said these things, he departed and hid himself from them.
Joh 12:37 Though he had done so many signs before them, they still did not believe in him,
Joh 12:38 so that the word spoken by the prophet Isaiah might be fulfilled: “Lord, who has believed what he heard from us, and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?”
Joh 12:39 Therefore they could not believe. For again
Isaiah said,
Joh 12:40 “
He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, lest they see with their eyes, and understand with their heart, and turn, and I would heal them.”
Joh 12:41
Isaiah said these things because he saw his glory and spoke of him. (ESV)
John says the above about Jesus and that the quote from Isaiah applies to him.
Isa 6:1 In the year that King Uzziah died
I saw the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up; and the train of his robe filled the temple.
Isa 6:2 Above him stood the seraphim. Each had six wings: with two he covered his face, and with two he covered his feet, and with two he flew.
Isa 6:3 And one called to another and said: “
Holy, holy, holy is the LORD of hosts; the whole earth is full of his glory!”
Isa 6:4 And the foundations of the thresholds shook at the voice of him who called, and the house was filled with smoke.
Isa 6:5 And I said: “Woe is me! For I am lost; for I am a man of unclean lips, and I dwell in the midst of a people of unclean lips;
for my eyes have seen the King, the LORD of hosts!”
…
Isa 6:9 And he said, “Go, and say to this people: “‘Keep on hearing, but do not understand; keep on seeing, but do not perceive.’
Isa 6:10 Make the heart of this people dull, and their ears heavy, and
blind their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their hearts, and turn and be healed.” (ESV)
Yet, we clearly see that the person whose glory Isaiah saw was Yahweh.
There is simply no way to understand John's gospel apart from the fact that the Son is truly God, in every way that the Father is.
yet for us there is but one God, the Father,
I have dealt with this numerous times and no one has yet been able to give me a straight answer to the two logical conclusions from this verse>
1Co 8:6 yet for us there is
one God, the Father,
from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and
one Lord, Jesus Christ,
through whom are all things and through whom we exist. (ESV)
First, if "one God, the Father" precludes the Son from being God, then "one Lord, Jesus Christ" precludes the Father from being Lord. Yet, that would contradict many verses. The only logical conclusion then, is that since "one Lord, Jesus Christ" doesn't preclude the Father from also being Lord, "one God, the Father" does not preclude the Son from also being God.
Second,
if "from whom are all things" speaks of the Father's absolute self-existence,
then it necessarily follows that "through whom are all things" speaks of the Son's absolute self-existence. It cannot be otherwise.
No, Jesus's being was defined by another will
Col 1:19
What do you mean by "Jesus's being was defined by another will"? I don't know what that means.
He is all that the Father is but is not coeternal
Then he
cannot be all that the Father is, not even close. It goes far beyond just not being coeternal. It seems that you haven't really studied the nature of God much.
And, again, please clearly show how "begotten" is different from "made" or "created."