Jesus' statement makes perfect sense to me.
That's the problem; it shouldn't. Jesus was asked, "You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?” (ESV). For him to answer, "before Abraham was I am
he [the Messiah]," would be to completely ignore the question. But, he wasn't ignoring the question, he was answering it.
The Jews are questioning how Jesus could have possibly seen Abraham, since Jesus wasn't even 50 years old, never mind that the difference between them is over 2,000 years. Jesus's clear answer is that he not only pre-existed Abraham, but that he has always existed (as the Son), therefore claiming to be true deity, just like his Father, which we should fully expect.
That's why they tried to stone him for blasphemy. Claiming to be the Messiah was not a punishable offence; it wasn't blasphemy.
The Pharisees were not interested in what Jesus was actually saying in all of John 8, while Jesus was trying to awaken faith..
How do you understand the word "conceived" in the following?
Matthew 1:20–21 (KJV): 20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived (mg: Gr. begotten) in her is of the Holy Spirit. 21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
The word "conceived" Gr. begotten is the same word translated "begat" on numerous occasions in Matthew 1. Do you have any trouble understanding the meaning of "Abraham begat Isaac, ..."
Conception speaks of the concept that Jesus' life started in the events recorded in Matthew 1:20-21 and Luke 1:34-35 where the conception or begettal occurred when God the Father became the father of the babe in the womb and Mary was his mother. Incarnation is the concept that somehow God the Son was contracted into the womb of Mary.
Here is the problem: you're conflating conception and begetting with
monogenes in order to claim that Jesus was merely human. Jesus was conceived in Mary by the Holy Spirit; there is no issue there. But that is not what
monogenes, which the KJV translates as "only begotten," refers to. That is
not when the Son came into existence, it is when the Son entered time and took on human flesh (John 1:14; Phil. 2:6-8).
This goes back to your quote from the KJV of John 1:18--"the only begotten Son"--which is based on the Textus Receptus. But, the best manuscripts actually read "God only begotten." This is why the NIV (1984) translates it as "God the One and Only," and the newer NIV as "the one and only Son, who is himself God." Even then, based on the meaning of
monogenes, the KJV
should be understood as saying, "the one and only Son."
John has already plainly called the Word
theos in 1:1c, which itself is simply the logical conclusion of 1:1a (eternal pre-existence) and 1:1b (was in interpersonal relationship with God). Then, he clearly equates the Son with the Word in verse 10--"the world was made through him" (being consistent with verse 3). The Word, as John speaks of him in in his prologue, is a clearly "person," distinct from the Father, yet God in nature just as the Father is. That is the only logical conclusion of John 1:1-18, based on a plain understanding of what John states.
It is impossible to truly understand John's gospel without understanding that the Son has always existed. It's only that through Mary he took on human nature in
addition to his divine nature (Phil. 2:6-8) and had the name Jesus. But, as the Son, there was never a time when he did not exist.