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In answer to previous posts.
Jesus Christ initially was completely of the same nature as his father. Spirit. Only later adding human or created nature to his Spirit nature. But this does not imply he must be eternal like his father.
But is that all that the nature of God entails, that he is spirit? Isn't that only his mode of being which is only one aspect of his nature? Jesus said that God is spirit, but John also says that God is love. Should we also not include the attributes of God that are what make God God? Shouldn't we include things such as omnipotence, omniscience, omnipresence, eternal self-existence (necessary being), immutable, etc.?
https://www.biblestudytools.com/bib...f-god-what-they-mean-and-why-they-matter.html
Given that those things are intrinsic to the nature of God, those things that make God who he is, would those things not also apply to his Son, who "was completely of the same nature as his father"? I don't see how they couldn't apply, since we know that a son is
always of the same nature as his father.
Nor mortal like his mother for that matter. What is revealed is that he could die. Something God can not do.
Does it not follow that since Jesus died that he was, at least in some way, mortal, like his mother? No, God cannot die, but humans obviously can.
That Jesus is a generated person reveals he had a beginning.
Isn't that just begging the question, though? John 1:1-3, 1 Cor 8:6, and Col 1:16-17, show that Jesus cannot have had a beginning. Such is the Greek grammar of John 1:1-2 and the logical conclusions of John 1:3 and the other passages.
Inherent in the word used. To say that Jesus is eternally generated is to redefine the word to mean something it does not mean. It is a redefining of Jesus Christ himself. It is what the Jews tried to do.
But, if the Bible explicitly and implicitly states that there never was a time when Jesus did not exist, yet it also clearly states that he was begotten (or generated), then isn't the only logical conclusion that he is eternally begotten (or generated)? Wouldn't that be an accurate understanding of what the NT states?
Is it not also logical to believe that if the Son is of the exact same nature as his Father, and the Father is infinite (has never not existed), that similarly the Son necessarily has always existed?
Also consider that angels are of the same nature as God (Hebrews 1:7). Are they therefore also God? And that those who are in Christ will be like Christ or the same nature as Christ (1John 3:2). How many of them are God?
Angels are spiritual beings, yes, but that is their mode of being, which is one aspect of nature.
The numerous Biblical passages that state Jesus is God only do so interpretively and only to those who believe the interpretations. God as an eternal being has always been God. God was not Father until he generated the Son.
As I have stated above, I think there are passages which can only be understood as saying Jesus is God, based on the Greek grammar and simple logic.
To one who understands the Bible as saying what it means and meaning what it says, to regard Revelations as conjecture is to also regard it as not being Scripture. The purpose of Scripture, including Revelations, is to reveal. So that, if Revelation is indeed Scripture, it must be possible to clearly understand what it reveals. Any idea that Revelations is a conjectural document is purely out of the mind of man. But it is true that Revelation has historically often been regarded as questionable by a great many Christians. Revelations is the only Scripture that the Eastern Orthodox will not read in their Liturgy. Conjecturally, the seven Spirits of God could mean anything to one who can not accept that they are as stated.
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Matt 18:26 is the only instance I can see where it is possibly used of reverence towards another person without a rebuke.” Not if one understands that the references to the worshipping of Jesus Christ are examples of the same thing. Trinitarians understand references of followers worshipping Jesus as worshipping him as God rather than as an authoritative teacher and/or the Messiah. And to them the term Son of God is equal to the term God the Son. Even though the context of the Old Testament religion belies such a practice of Worship. As a follower of the Old Testament and the God it portrays, Jesus would never have allowed himself to be worshipped as God. That he did allow worship is the primary evidence that his followers were not worshipping him as God.
Look at the times he was worshiped:
Mat 14:32 And when they got into the boat, the wind ceased.
Mat 14:33 And those in the boat worshiped him, saying, “Truly you are the Son of God.” (ESV)
That context for worshiping Jesus and calling him "the Son of God," is not insignificant:
Psa 65:7 who stills the roaring of the seas, the roaring of their waves, the tumult of the peoples, (ESV)
Psa 107:29 He made the storm be still, and the waves of the sea were hushed.
Psa 107:30 Then they were glad that the waters were quiet, and he brought them to their desired haven. (ESV)
Also, immediately after his resurrection:
Mat 28:9 And behold, Jesus met them and said, “Greetings!” And they came up and took hold of his feet and worshiped him.
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Mat 28:17 And when they saw him they worshiped him, but some doubted. (ESV)
Immediately after healing a man:
Joh 9:38 He said, “Lord, I believe,” and he worshiped him. (ESV)
And, most importantly:
Joh 20:28 Thomas answered him, “My Lord and my God!” (ESV)
Again, no rebuke in any of these cases from Jesus, unlike the previous instances I gave when Peter told Cornelius not to do that to him, and angels said not to do that to them.
The idea that Jesus claimed to be equal to God originated with the Jews as an excuse to kill him.
That claim originates with Jesus, as per John's gospel:
Joh 8:23 And He was saying to them, "You are from below, I am from above; you are of this world, I am not of this world.
Joh 8:24 "I said therefore to you, that you shall die in your sins; for unless you believe that I am
He, you shall die in your sins." (NASB)
Note first that Jesus says he is "from above" and that he is "not of this world." Second, "
He" is capitalized in the NASB (and other versions) because it isn't in the Greek text. It is an explicit claim to be the I Am of Ex 3:14, which he repeats shortly after:
Joh 8:58 Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”
Joh 8:59 So they picked up stones to throw at him, but Jesus hid himself and went out of the temple. (ESV)
Stoning was, of course, the penalty for blasphemy. The Jews were correct that Jesus, in calling himself the "Son of God," was to make himself equal with the Father. Again, a son is always the same nature as his father. I would argue that this is one of the very reason God chose to use this terminology.
Joh 5:18 This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God. (ESV)
Note that John doesn't say the Jews believed that by calling God his own Father, Jesus was making himself equal with God. It is John
himself that is making that claim, which shouldn't be surprising given what he says in John 1:1-18.
Later on John says the Jews understood the claim Jesus was making by calling himself the Son of God:
Joh 10:30 I and the Father are one.”
Joh 10:31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone him.
Joh 10:32 Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?”
Joh 10:33 The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.”
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Joh 10:36 do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? (ESV)
This Jewish claim was the precursor of the Trinitarian idea. Not paganism.
On this we agree.
That the singular name of Matthew 28:19 is the person of God. Yes. It would have to be understood in that way by a Trinitarian. But consider that this passage is as Christocentric as the rest of the New Testament. Consider that the context concerns the Son. So that the singular name refers to the person of Jesus Christ, the New Testament center of the work of the three. And note the word “given”. Jesus as God would not need to be given authority. He would either exercise that authority or he would not.
I don't see how the singular name can refer to the person of Jesus Christ, when what follows "in the name" is "of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit." That is a Oneness and Modalist view of the verse. If M. R. Vincent is correct, that "The
name . . . is the expression of the sum total of the divine Being: not his
designation as God or Lord, but the formula in which all his attributes and characteristics are summed up" and "It is equivalent to
his person," then the singular name must be the name of God, Yahweh.