But they have not all obeyed the gospel. For Isaiah says, “LORD, who has believed our report?” So then faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God. Romans 10:16-17
- faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God
Faith, the divine substance of our hope, is received when we hear the Gospel, from the Lord directly or indirectly through those He sends.
Here is an example of both:
By faith Abraham obeyed when he was called to go out to the place which he would receive as an inheritance. And he went out, not knowing where he was going. Hebrews 11:8
This is an example of the Lord preaching the Gospel to Abraham, directly. “By faith” means God spoke to a person and they obeyed.
Paul says it this way to the Galatians —
And the Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles
by faith, preached the gospel to Abraham beforehand, saying, “In you all the nations shall be blessed.”
Galatians 3:8
Here is the original text from Genesis —
Now the LORD had said to Abram:
“Get out of your country,
From your family
And from your father’s house,
To a land that I will show you.
I will make you a great nation;
I will bless you
And make your name great;
And you shall be a blessing.
I will bless those who bless you,
And I will curse him who curses you;
And in you all the families of the earth shall be blessed.”
So
Abram departed as the LORD had spoken to him,
Genesis 12:1-4
The Lord spoke to Abraham, and he received faith.
Abraham was justified, declared to be righteous, when he obey what the Lord spoke to him.
Same exact principle that James teaches.
JLB
Out of all this, there is something missing. Abraham was justified 15 years before offering Isaac, since God declared him righteous at that time (Gen. 15), whereas he offered Isaac 15-17 years later in Gen. 22. Therefore, in order to adhere to the principle of non-contradiction of scripture, there has to be some reconciliation between Paul's usage of the word "faith" in Gal. 3 and Rom. 4, in contrast with James' usage of the word in James 2. The proof that the usages of the word is different is found in the contrast between these two verses:
Rom. 3:28 "We maintain that a man is justified by faith, apart from the works of the law."
James 2:24 "You see then that a man is justified by works, and not by faith alone."
Can you see that on the surface, these two statements are in disagreement, if indeed the term "faith" has exactly the same meaning in both cases?
So, the principle of faith in Christ that James is teaching is the same principle of faith that Paul teaches, if the idea of non-contradiction of scripture is assumed. And if that same principle of faith is being taught by both men, then they are using the term differently in those contexts, which requires a different definition of the term. I contend those definitions are:
Paul's usage of the word "faith" in Gal. 3 and Rom. 4 is that genuine faith which has spiritual basis, which infers the "root" that Jesus mentions in the parable of the sower. So in Rom. 10 Paul writes "faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God," in which 1 Peter says that we are born again by the word of God, as being the same meaning and principle of genuine faith. This is the faith which has the spiritual element resulting in salvation mentioned in Eph. 2:8-10. This is the kind of faith by which people are justified with God, which is faith in Christ rooted in spiritual communion with God by the Holy Spirit.
In contrast, James uses the term "faith" in a much different manner - justified "not by faith alone." Therefore, his audience was different than Paul's audience, with a different problem. Familiarity with Paul's writings can show that Paul is writing to genuine Christians whose faith is confused by the voices of the Pharisee party (the legalist party). But James is obviously writing to Gnostics and antinomians who had infiltrated the churches at that time. It can easily be inferred that he is using the term "faith" in a shallow manner as those who claim to believe in Christ whose lives don't prove a genuine faith. This kind of faith which does NOT justify a person, lacks the spiritual element, in which Jesus said they "have no root in themselves."
The different usages of the term is established in the context in which those terms are used, which modifies the definition of the term in each situation. To summarize these differences:
1. Paul is writing to encourage immature Christians to trust in Christ without having to have a legal or works-based relationship with God.
2. James is warning people who disregard consideration of other peoples' needs, as something not of God.
3. Paul's teaching on faith shows that faith alone, or faith without any works, justifies a person with God, if indeed that faith is of the kind that trusts in Christ for those promises that are in harmony with the gospel, which results in a person repenting from sin and living in obedience to Christ's words.
4. James' teaching on faith shows that an inadequate faith doesn't cut the mustard.
5. Paul's usage of the word "faith" has the spiritual element.
6. James' usage of the word "faith" in Jam. 2:24 does not have the spiritual element.
7. Paul uses the word "faith" with the assumption that works of righteousness will follow, as shown by Eph. 2:8-10.
8. James uses the word "faith" in Jam. 2:24 with the assumption that no works of righteousness follows it, therefore he has to be saying that righteous works is proof of genuine faith, while saying that inauthentic faith doesn't lead to salvation.
Finally, in Gal. 3, Paul expands the term "believed God" to mean that Abraham understood that the "seed" which God was talking about was the Messiah first mentioned in Gen. 3:15. Therefore, Paul is suggesting that everyone believing in Christ is justified, in the same way that Abraham was justified and declared righteous in Gen. 15:6.
With this in mind, it becomes clear that I do not agree with your definitions of "faith" and "believe" as you laid it out in your previous posts.
TD