Please read post 138.Is this explanation of 'imputed righteousness' by Christ to the believer adequate for you or not? What is correct or wrong with this explanation?
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Please read post 138.Is this explanation of 'imputed righteousness' by Christ to the believer adequate for you or not? What is correct or wrong with this explanation?
Please read post 138It is quite unfortunate, but Christians frequently consider salvation in "bits and pieces", hence your statement. Justification, imputed righteousness, the gift of the Holy Spirit, the New Birth, a new heart and a new spirit, the sealing with the Spirit, the baptizing by the Spirit, a new walk in the Spirit, the power of the Holy Spirit within, the anointing by the Holy Spirit, the gift of eternal life, election, predestination, sanctification, the indwelling of the Godhead, are all facets of salvation which must be kept as an integrated whole. Instead, we want to take one of two segments and discuss them to death. So once you take everything into account, there is no "white washing".
As I said before (perhaps in another thread) there are three tenses to salvation in Scripture. We are already righteous (imputed righteousness), we are being made righteous (progressive santification), and we shall be perfectly righteous (perfected and glorified). Once again, we take the whole picture into account, not just segments.
Please read post 138.Well that IS what 1 Peter 4:8 states, and is what God sees,metaphorically, when He looks at us.
Also Paul confirms that there is NONE righteous, Rom 3:10 (NIV), so our righteousness is ONLY found in Jesus as we accept Him into our lives.
To Malachi, Ozspen, JLB, and Stan.
I believe we were made perfectly righteous when we were in a state of innocence, before we ate of the fruit of knowledge. Genesis 1:27. We began in a state of absolute trust/faith in God. Then a false image of god was implanted in our subconscious through subterfuge which caused us to question ourselves about God's integrity. Genesis 3:4-5. This corrupted our loving and trusting nature which was our Godliness. When we ate of the fruit we not only unwittingly accepted a false image of god. But we also attained a knowledge of good and evil giving us the ability to choose for ourselves right and wrong through a mental deliberation of the knowledge of good and evil. This is why we believe in the dictionary definition of freewill. We can condemn and praise others for their actions according to this vain righteousness with no understanding of what true righteousness is. And with this we also condemned ourselves in hypocrisy justifying returning evil for evil.
When we believe in the Christ, we see a Love that returns good for evil forgiving those who would even crucify him to a cross. To some this is foolishness. 1 Corinthians 1:18. But for those that believe, there is some remnant still in us of where we have fallen from. And with this we believe in the Christ when he is revealed to us. Matthew 13:12. When we believe in Jesus as the true Image of God, we are reborn, casting out the false god through a renewed faith in the Eternal Spirit that is God. Our righteousness is restored even as we carry our own cross forgiving those who would crucify us. And we do this because we are sincerely in repentance for ever considering that God was a liar and a tyrant. Through this we are justified in that we never deliberately thought God was a liar and a tyrant.
Hence righteousness is imputed when we believe in Jesus. He is a quickening Spirit. But this goes deeper because we now know who we are in Christ whereas in the garden we did not know.
For more read post 108.
Please read post 138.
You are confusing innocence with righteousness. Righteousness for Adam and Eve would have been (a) absolutely no communication with the Devil and (b) absolute obedience to God. Therefore the fleeting innocence of the first pair has nothing to do with our righteousness as believers.I believe we were made perfectly righteous when we were in a state of innocence, before we ate of the fruit of knowledge.
It is Adam and Eve who sinned, so there is no "we" as applied to the rest of mankind. The human race was infected with the virus of sin and its result, which is death.When we ate of the fruit we not only unwittingly accepted a false image of god. But we also attained a knowledge of good and evil giving us the ability to choose for ourselves right and wrong through a mental deliberation of the knowledge of good and evil.
You won't find this teaching in Scripture. The "flesh" is under condemndation, therefore we need the imputed righteousness of Christ. Since our righteousness is "filthy rags" there is no restoring filthy rags. They are fit to be burned.Our righteousness is restored even as we carry our own cross forgiving those who would crucify us.
We are justified by faith, as you will see in Scripture, not as you have stated.And we do this because we are sincerely in repentance for ever considering that God was a liar and a tyrant. Through this we are justified in that we never deliberately thought God was a liar and a tyrant.
The Garden of Eden has nothing to do with imputed righteousness. To sum up, you are putting together an imaginary scenario connected with Adam and Eve and the Garden and salvation. We need to present Bible Truth, not imaginary things.Hence righteousness is imputed when we believe in Jesus. He is a quickening Spirit. But this goes deeper because we now know who we are in Christ whereas in the garden we did not know.
The believers that Don't continue to believe, will question their eternal life and will not KNOW(perfect tense).Malachi,
What does 1 John 5:13 (ESV) teach? 'I write [Gk aorist tense] these things to you who believe [Gk present tense] in the name of the Son of God that you may know [Gk perfect tense] that you have [Gk present tense] eternal life.
The aorist tense is point action in the past. The present tense refers to continuing action in the present time. The perfect tense refers to an action in the past with continuing results.
Therefore, the meaning of 1 John 5:13 (ESV) is NOT that somebody believed in the past and thus is guaranteed of eternal security no matter what he or she does after saying 'yes' to Jesus. The meaning of 1 John 5:13 (ESV) is that it is written to those 'who continue to believe in the name of the Son of God so that you may continue to have the result of knowing that you are continuing to have eternal life'. So, perseverance of the saints is better language than eternal security or once saved always saved, based on the verse you have given, 1 John 5:13 (ESV).
Why? Because the original Greek language of the text affirms that the Christians who continue to believe in the name of the Son of God will know that they continue to have eternal life. Thus, eternal life is guaranteed to those who persevere in the faith - they continue to believe.
Oz
In post 130 you asked if this imputed righteousness was adequate enough or not. As there are semantics, after reading the provided explanation I could only honestly answer yes and no. I tried several times to try and explain why and why not, but it got too complicated. So I decided to say how and why I believe imputed righteousness comes through belief in Christ. The explanation you provided doesn't answer anything. For example this: But upon confession of one's own sin and faith in Christ's death and resurrection, the sinner is justified and counted as having the righteousness of Christ. Why?Your post 138 gives your opinion but it does not deal with the issues I'm raising.
There's no indication that God created Adam and Eve with unrighteousness. Adam was made in God's image and likeness. Adam was without sin and right before God. All things were created through the Word of God. That Word was the Light and Life of man. John 1:3-4. If there was something un-right with Adam then there was something un-right with God's Word. Adam was without sin and right before God. A) Absolutely no communication with the devil? This is easily debunked. Was God unrighteous because He had communication with Satan? Was Jesus? No. Besides that Satan communicated with them. Was there some commandment not to talk to Satan? B) Absolute obedience to God. There is no indication that they were disobedient before the false image was introduced. Look here unfaith in God = disobedience, therefore faith in God =obedience. Faith precedes obedience and unfaith precedes disobedience.You are confusing innocence with righteousness. Righteousness for Adam and Eve would have been (a) absolutely no communication with the Devil and (b) absolute obedience to God. Therefore the fleeting innocence of the first pair has nothing to do with our righteousness as believers.
Yes they sinned, and sin was passed down to all men so it's we. If Adams sin isn't our sin then Christ's righteousness is not our righteousness. Romans 5:19.It is Adam and Eve who sinned, so there is no "we" as applied to the rest of mankind. The human race was infected with the virus of sin and its result, which is death.
Sure our righteousness is filthy rags because it isn't true righteousness as I explained. The weakness of the flesh pertains to our inability to accomplish the requirements of the law after being sold to sin. Romans 7:14. Romans 8:3You won't find this teaching in Scripture. The "flesh" is under condemndation, therefore we need the imputed righteousness of Christ. Since our righteousness is "filthy rags" there is no restoring filthy rags. They are fit to be burned.
I never said we were not justified through faith in Christ's laying down his life. The difference to me is that I see sin as being preceded by un-faith so reconciliation has to come through faith. I am positive that a person can't truly be sorry if they don't know what they did wrong. Therefore I see that according to scripture what we did wrong was accept a false image of god.We are justified by faith, as you will see in Scripture, not as you have stated.
Sin entered in through Adam, that happened in the garden. That's what scripture says. Jesus came to destroy the works of the devil, not the works of Adam. 1 John 3:8. Makes perfect sense to me.The Garden of Eden has nothing to do with imputed righteousness. To sum up, you are putting together an imaginary scenario connected with Adam and Eve and the Garden and salvation. We need to present Bible Truth, not imaginary things.
Paul had seen the Lord, spoke with the Lord, given all that the Holy Spirit power that there is. He was even given the authority to turn someone over to satan. He spoke and wrote with authority from God directly.I'm not following you Deb.
Respectfully, I see it is your opinion that this is my opinion. That's okay. It's all taken from scripture. I think you should use scripture to refute it and correct me rather than dismiss it as opinion.childeye,
I do wish you would not do this combined kind of response as it amounts to giving your own opinion and not addressing the issues Malachi, JLB, Stan and I raised. If you don't have the time to address the points raised by each of those posters, please choose one and address the specifics.
Then we can deal with exegesis and meaning of the texts, rather than have to deal with your 'I believe', which is a personal opinion that has no more validity than my personal opinion.
Oz
I'm sure OzSpen will respond in due course, but to answer your question briefly, the answer is found in 2 Cor 5:21:For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.The explanation you provided doesn't answer anything. For example this: But upon confession of one's own sin and faith in Christ's death and resurrection, the sinner is justified and counted as having the righteousness of Christ. Why?
I'm sorry Malachi, but that's not how I see it. Essentially it sounds like you are saying that we should accept that an innocent man be tortured and crucified so we can escape our just death.I'm sure OzSpen will respond in due course, but to answer your question briefly, the answer is found in 2 Cor 5:21:For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
So according to this Scripture God makes an "unfair exchange" if you will. He put all your sins on Christ, Christ paid the full penalty for your sins, therefore God declared you to be righteous, and then He placed Christ's perfect righteousness upon you. This is God's amazing grace at work.
It does not sound fair, but that's what it is. God gave you and me an "unfair advantage" through what Christ accomplished in His death, burial, and resurrection. No man will ever be righteous enough -- perfect as God is perfect -- to enter Heaven. Therefore God gives sinners the GIFT of imputed righteousness, and the GIFT of eternal life.
Human beings do not really understand grace, therefore they resist it. But even some Christians do not understand grace, that's why they keep spinning their wheels.
The believers that Don't continue to believe, will question their eternal life and will not KNOW(perfect tense).
They think they are on "stand by" and don't realize that they have a confirmed ticket.
But a couple questions on your Greek.
Does the present tense in the Greek ALWAYS indicate continuing action?. And do you see a purpose clause in 1 John 5:13?
It would be akin to John 3:16~~
16“For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that(the purpose) whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.
We have the present tense(participle,not verb) in this verse. It is stating the purpose, not the action of an individual person.
Respectfully, I see it is your opinion that this is my opinion. That's okay. It's all taken from scripture. I think you should use scripture to refute it and correct me rather than dismiss it as opinion.
In post 130 you asked if this imputed righteousness was adequate enough or not. As there are semantics, after reading the provided explanation I could only honestly answer yes and no. I tried several times to try and explain why and why not, but it got too complicated. So I decided to say how and why I believe imputed righteousness comes through belief in Christ. The explanation you provided doesn't answer anything. For example this: But upon confession of one's own sin and faith in Christ's death and resurrection, the sinner is justified and counted as having the righteousness of Christ. Why?
Rollo,
Your 4 lines do not make sense to me. Would you please enunciate?
Oz