In my judgement, you have yet to successfully counter any of my arguments. Name one single case where I have not successfully and fully countered an argument you have put forward. Or, if you like, name one single argument / assertion that I have put forward that you have successfully countered.
All of them, I think.
I gave a list of my posts which did the 'shooting down' but the thread has gone to the 'dead thread' section, so If you'd like the list, have a look there, or I can exhume it.
Here's another coming up now:
Did you notice the simple words 'WILL see Him'?
Yes, I did. Now explain to me precisely how such a qualification works against the position that the kingdom arrived back in the first century.
Well, precisely,
they didn't see Him. Therefore the King, and thus the Kingdom, hadn't arrived.
John is simply saying that all Israel will come to understand that Jesus has indeed been vindicated as Lord and Messiah.
That is most emphatically NOT what the text says:
Rev 1.7
Behold, he cometh with the clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they which pierced him; and all the tribes of the earth shall mourn over him. Even so, Amen.
You are attributing to God (who gave the book of Revelation to Christ) a crass inability to say what He means - which is a nonsensical position to be in, Drew.
I'm sure even you could say that more clearly that Revelation does.
You seem to be implying that my position fails because the text in question requires us to understand that all the people will look up in the sky and literally see the body of Jesus flying around.
That is a caricature of the NT position.
But I fail to see what else the words could mean. EVERY EYE SHALL SE HIM, means, in my opinion, precisely that. And there are other passages which say precisely the same thing:
Matt 24.30 and then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn,
and they shall see the Son of man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
Matt 25.31 ¶ But when the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the angels with him, then shall he sit on the throne of his glory:
32 and before him shall be gathered all the nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as the shepherd separateth the sheep from the goats:
33 and he shall set the sheep on his right hand, but the goats on the left.
34 Then shall the King say unto them on his right hand, Come, ye blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world:
35 for I was an hungred, and ye gave me meat: I was thirsty, and ye gave me drink: I was a stranger, and ye took me in;
36 naked, and ye clothed me: I was sick, and ye visited me: I was in prison, and ye came unto me.
Every sentence there implies that they will physically see Him.
Otherwise we've both missed the bus!
2 Th 1:8 in flaming fire, rendering vengeance to them that know not God, and to them that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus:
9 who shall suffer punishment, even eternal destruction
from the face of the Lord and from the glory of his might,
10 when he shall come to be glorified in his saints,
and to be marvelled at in all them that believed (because our testimony unto you was believed) in that day.
How are they going to do that if they don't physically see Him?
Please - let's not be woodenly literalistic. Do you really think that when Jesus tells Caiaphus that he (Caiaphus) will see Jesus coming on the clouds of glory that Caiaphus will literally "see" Jesus riding on a cloud?
You're darned tootin' he will.
Please - let's give Jesus and the people of the first century a little credit for their ability to understand and use metaphorical language.
One of your older theological cronies (Hooker, I think it was) said
“I hold it for a most infallible rule in the exposition of Scripture, that when a literal construction will stand, the furthest from the literal is commonly the worst” (
Laws of Ecclesiastical Polity, V. lix. 2).
Here's Tyndale (a man for whom I have the utmost respect) on the point:
“Thou shalt understand, therefore,
that the scripture hath but one sense, which is but the literal sense. And that literal sense is the root and ground of all, and the anchor that never faileth, whereunto if thou cleave, thou canst never err or go out of the way.
And if thou leave the literal sense, thou canst not but go out of the way. Nevertheless, the scripture uses proverbs, similitudes, riddles, or allegories, as all other speeches do; but that which the proverb, similitude, riddle or allegory signifieth,
is ever the literal sense, which thou must seek out diligently.”
You're taking dangerous liberties with the text, when you try to avoid its perfectly plain meanings, and you cannot help ending in disaster if you persist.
So in a very friendly hortatory manner, I urge you to desist from doing so. Take the words as literally as possible, and you can't go too far wrong.
I think this answers much of what is coming, so I won't belabour the point.