God the Word becoming flesh, is Jesus Christ coming in the flesh of man, with the same one natural blood of all men.
Act 17:26And hath made of one blood all nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth, and hath determined the times before appointed, and the bounds of their habitation;
The Stephanos Greek has "blood," but Westcot Hort Greek does not. The latter is just saying from "one" all nations were made to dwell on earth.
Obviously, Jesus' physical DNA and spiritual DNA were different from other men. Jesus shared blood in common with other men, but I would never say his blood was exclusively like that of other men. He was sinless, and in my view, he was God.
Why do you declare that Jesus' blood is as common as all other men? Clearly, he was unlike all other men, being sinless and able to operate with an unlimited supply of divine power--well beyond what Elijah and Elisha could do, or Moses could do, or any saint could do.
Have you ever compared Jesus' miracles with the miracles performed by the saints before him, or even after him? Jesus seemed to have an endless supply, limited only by his Father's will. Nobody could raise themselves from the dead except for Jesus.
Some Christians preach Jesus Christ coming in immortal flesh and 'pure' blood of God, not that of man. Denying Jesus Christ coming in the flesh of man, is denying He is come in the flesh.
I don't think Christians deny that Jesus came in the flesh. But they would deny that he was strictly man.
There may be some language problems in describing how Jesus' blood represents Divine atonement, but it results in the same truth. Jesus' blood represented God's means of forgiving sin. When Jesus forgave sin, God his Father simultaneously forgave sin.
It really has nothing to do with "immortal flesh," because the immortal body happened for Jesus after the cross, and it begins for us at Jesus' Coming. But it was important that Jesus' blood be "pure" because an atoning sacrificed required purity. If purity was required of animal sacrifices it represented Jesus as a sinless sacrifice.
The Apostle John in 1 John warned against Gnostics who believed in Docetism. Greek philosophy seemed to deny that any sense of a transcendant God can appear in flesh within our own domain. He could be viewed as a phantom creature, but not as a real, physical being.
Who is denying, in the Christian world, that Jesus came as a man, as physical flesh? Jesus' spiritual being as a man is conjoined to his Being as God such that his physical blood properly represents atoning blood on behalf of God.
This is normal human blood, but Jesus' human spirit was anything but a normal human spirit. His spirit was conjoined to the transcendent deity of his Father. They were one.
It's a Christianized throw back to the pagan myths of demigod heroes born of the Gods, who have supernatural bodies rather than naural bodies of other men.
Jesus was supernatural. The tales and legends of the Greek and Roman gods is paganism.
The supernatural God is not paganism. God has conferred divine powers upon prophets in the past. The powers He conferred upon Jesus was certainly supernatural.
The extent of his powers rendered him beyond humanity entirely. He was God in human flesh. He not only had Divine powers, but he carried the Divine identity.
Romans{1:3} Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;
Heb 2:16For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham.
Jesus was God in the same flesh and blood of all man, born of a woman, made by the seed of David and Abraham, and Noah and Adam. He did not have the 'ichor' of the Gods flowing through immortal veins.
And, no wicked hand having Jesus' natural blood on it, is washed clean while crucifying Him.
1Pe 1:2Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied.
The only pure and eternal blood of the Lamb of God, that washes aways sins, is that of His resurrection and quickening Spirit. His cleansing blood is sprinkled on them that repent, and drank with obedience to the Son.
This is weird doctrine, and I don't know where you get it or what it even means? How is Jesus' resurrection and quickening Spirit his only pure and eternal blood.
I've told you this before, and I'll tell you again: the only thing that brings redemption to man is the cross, upon which Jesus shed his blood. That was an atonement for the sins of man. And it is this that we put our faith in for forgiveness, for atonement, for Salvation.
The resurrection follows. The giving of the NT Spirit follows, although the Spirit had already been given previously in some measure.
It's just that the Spirit had to be given after the resurrection in order to apply the work of the cross in the context of Jesus' resurrection. Atonement took place at the cross, but the purpose was to give us resurrection and Eternal Life.
Jhn 6:53Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you.
No Scripture speaks of anyone drinking Jesus' natural blood shed by striping and crucifying Him. Which is contrary to the law in the old and new testament.
Nobody but Catholics say anything remotely like this, and Catholics do not really even mean that! Nobody has to drink Jesus' actual blood.
I believe Communion to be a reenactment of what Jesus did to atone for our sins for purposes of *remembering it.* We have to remember that the basis of our forgiveness was Jesus' death for our sins, including our need to participate in it spiritually.
The cross has already happened, and Pentecost has already happened. We just need to remember those things.