Definition: Love in God is a volition of favor, hate/wrath is a volition to disfavor.
Exegesis of John 3:16 (the most abused verse in Scripture today)
God so loved the world”. Many suppose that this means, ‘The entire human race.’ But “the entire human race,” includes all mankind from Adam till the close of the earth’s history! Consider, the history of mankind before Christ was born. Unnumbered millions lived and died before the Savior came to the earth,
Ephesians 2:12 “having no hope and without God in the world”, and therefore went to hell. If God “loved” them (or those today that have not heard the salvific gospel), where is the slightest proof? “Who (God) in times past (from the tower of Babel till after Pentecost) suffered all nations to walk in their own ways” (
Acts 14:16). God gave them over to a depraved mind, to do things which are improper
and repulsive (
Romans 1:28). To Israel God said, “You only have I known of all the families of the earth” (
Amos 3:2). (Aside: God speaks to KNOWING people, not plan or events). Thus, how can one insist that God in the past loved all mankind! Read the 20th chapter of the Revelation, the great white throne judgment, and see if you can discover there the slightest trace of
love (agape LOVE is defined as "a volition to favor". These people spend 99.99% of their lives (pre and post death) in hell .. how could this be an illustration of God's volition to favor (love). (To put it in the vernacular, with friends like that, who needs enemies .)
A study of the concordance will show that there are more references in Scripture to the anger, fury, and wrath of God, than there are to His
love and tenderness. Because God is holy, He hates all sin; and because He hates all sin, His anger burns against the sinner (
Psalm 7:11;
Matthew 3:7).
What of John 3:16.
John 3:16 and says, “World means world”. True, but that “
the world” does not mean the whole human family." The world” is used in a general way. When the brethren of Christ said, “Shew Thyself to the world” (
John 7:4), did they mean “shew Thyself to all mankind” (ridiculous)? When the Pharisees said, “Behold, the world is gone after Him” (
John 12:19), did they mean that “all the human family” were flocking after Him (ridiculous)? When the apostle wrote, “Your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world” (
Romans 1:8), did he mean that the faith of the saints at Rome was the subject of conversation by every man, woman, and child on the earth (ridiculous)? These, and other passages (
John 14:17;
John 15:19;
John 16:20;
John 17:14; etc.) which might be quoted, show that the term “the world” often has a relative rather than an absolute force.
World is a nonspecific term for humanity in a general sense. The statement in verse 17, “that the world might be saved through Him,” proves that it does not mean everyone who has ever lived, since all will not be saved. Verse 16 clearly cannot be teaching universal salvation, since the context promises that unbelievers will perish in eternal judgment (vv. 16–18). John MacArthur – New Testament Commentary
Does God love everyone without exception. Yes and no.
YES … The New Testament is replete with references of God’s good will to all humanity even in our fallenness (
Matthew 5:43-48). Called the love of benevolence, it includes no spiritual benefit, and none of that concern that a father would have for his children. God provide natural benefits to the reprobates. See Romans 9:13-26; Psalm 145:8–9 “The LORD is gracious, and full of compassion; slow to anger, and of great mercy. The LORD is good to all: and his tender mercies are over all his works.”
No.. God does not favor (the definition of love is “volition to favor”) everyone to the same extent. He loves those in Christ as He loves Christ. (John 17:23) To those God adopts He loves most and perfectly. There is NO hate (volition to disfavor) in God for those IN CHRIST; whereas, the wrath (volition of disfavor) of God is eternal for those not IN CHRIST.