Tenchi
Member
I've acknowledged what God's word says, yes. And it says only that we suffer the consequences of Adam's sin, not any guilt for his sin.
You're arguing for the idea of Original Sin which is a mistaken notion, as I've shown from Scripture. Romans 5:12 does not "plainly state" this erroneous doctrine.
Romans 5:12-14
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned—
13 for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.
Verse 12 doesn't say anything about Adam's sin - and the guilt for it - being imputed to all of mankind. It just doesn't, as one can see by actually looking at the verse. By his God-disobedient choice, Adam introduced sin into the world and, as a consequence of his sin, death also entered the world. But Adam's sin also separated Man from God spiritually, moving humanity out from under God's direct spiritual control, which has resulted in their being sinful, too. And so, all of humanity, cut off from God spiritually by Adam's sin and inevitably migrating into sin as a consequence, end up dying, too. This is all I see in the passage above. There is no mention at all of sin-guiltiness inherited by Adam, no imputation of Adam's sin to all of his descendants. And there wouldn't be, since God expressly and repeatedly forbade such "justice" (Ezekiel 18:19-20; Deuteronomy 24:16).
??? No, I've indicated that Scripture describes a "sin-nature" that operates within all human beings. But it isn't a nature that makes a person guilty of sin from the womb. No, it is only a nature that is, as Scripture tells us, unregulated by God, that is out from under His control and constraint, and thus inevitably becomes sinful. And so, nowhere does Scripture ever condemn newborn children as sinful (though, as I've shown, some like to misconstrue Psalm 51:5 as saying this).
I've explained very biblically where it comes from.
No, I've not redefined the term "sin." Not at all. Instead, I just have a better definition of it than you do, one that appears to be more fully informed by God's word than your definition is. Unfortunately, your...cartoon of my view of sin doesn't at all properly represent what I've explained about sin and the nature of human beings. And so, I've no obligation to defend your cartoon of what I believe.
My mind, as best as I'm able to make it so, is "narrow" as much as God's word requires it to be. For such narrowness I have no need to make explanation or apology. As far as I'm concerned, it's the one who is more "open-minded" and thus outside of divine Truth, who needs to do so.
Nope, merely stating the fact of the matter.
Yes, the law of God exposes sin for what it is by clearly defining moral right and wrong.
Paul's human nature, his "flesh," being by default unsubmitted to God, as I've explained, is not able, by itself, to seek the things of God, to put itself under God's will. Instead, as Paul explained in Romans 7, his fleshly (i.e sin) nature is just provoked by God's law to rebellion against it. This reflexive rebellion toward God, this natural disposition to seek our own will and way, to fulfill our own self-interest, even when doing so disobeys God, is the "law of sin in our members."
Romans 8:6-8
6 For to set the mind on the flesh is death, but to set the mind on the Spirit is life and peace.
7 For the mind that is set on the flesh is hostile to God, for it does not submit to God’s law; indeed, it cannot.
8 Those who are in the flesh cannot please God.
And so, in the NT, we are enjoined as children of God to submit to, yield to, humble ourselves before, present ourselves as slaves and living sacrifices to, God (Romans 6:13-22; Romans 12:1; James 4:7; 1 Peter 5:6).
Continued below.
