Where does this passage "demand" that a Christian person submit to the views of the "Church Fathers" who are, essentially, just Christian men who lived a long time ago? Nowhere. The passage does tell the Israelites to teach the commandments of God - not their own ideas about doctrines of the Christian faith, like the "Church Fathers" - to their children.
Then why do you teach your own ideas? Why do you cook God's words with your own dressing and seasoning of so called "unregulated self interest" instead of just serving them as what they are? Original sin is one of the fundemantal doctrines of Christianity, I don't come up with it, neither did I demand you to "submit" to it. "God's commandment" in this particular passage is to love God with all your strength, soul and heart, this needs to be taught BECAUSE of the spiritual separation from God, nobody naturally knows and loves God, they all natually hide from God and rebel against God, isn't that precisely what original sin is?
I see no demand here given by God that all Christians must defer to the doctrinal views of ancient, non-apostolic Christian men. In fact, God's truth is not indicated as the topic of instruction in this verse, only whatever parents may teach to their kids.
Who are you to conclude who's "apostolic" and who's not? And who're you to determine what's "God's truth" and what's not? And what do you mean by "views of ancient" - isn't the bible itself a collection of 66 ancient books? What view is "modern" and "apostolic" enough to your taste? You're old enough to be considered "ancient" to me, what makes your view more truthful than those church fathers whom you disparage as "ancient, non-apostolic"?
Besides, as far as I'm concerned, the bible is suffient but not exhaustive, says the bible itself, Jn. 21:25, God's truth includes both his general truth and his special truth, by no means is secular education that passes general truth inferior to ecclesiastic teachings that pass special truth. Since this was authored by Solomon, the wisest man who was directly gifted by God with heavenly wisdom, whatever the topic of such instruction is that he passed down to his son, it shouldn't be dismissed as "ancient, non-apostolic doctrinal views".
Where's the divine "demand" that this verse is offered in support of? And description doesn't equal prescription, @ Carry_Your_ Name. I don't see at all, actually, why you offered this verse in support of your assertion that "God's word demands us to humble ourselves and listen to his ordained teachers." The verse says nothing like this and actually gives no prescription for Christian conduct whatever.
God has given prescriptions as well in terms of "divine demand" - a divine demand to uphold sound doctrines passed down from past generations of church fathers, instead of tuning into whatever you consider more "modern" and acceptable.
It was not my "assertion", but a recorded historical fact in the book of Acts that the eunuch, a highly educated elite in charge of Queen Candace's treasury, not only having access to the Scripture but able to read, a devout prigrim on his way back from Jerusalem, had humbled himself and listened to an ordained teacher of God, the only thing I "asserted" is that I'm not greater or smarter than him, he's a role model which I should follow.
"For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine, but according to their own desires, because they have itching ears, they will heap up for themselves teachers; and they will turn their ears away from the truth, and be turned aside to fables." (2 Tim. 4:3-4)
Whoever transgresses and does not abide in the doctrine of Christ does not have God. He who abides in the doctrine of Christ has both the Father and the Son. If anyone comes to you and does not bring this doctrine, do not receive him into your house nor greet him; for he who greets him shares in his evil deeds. (2 Jn. 1:9-11)
??? I don't understand your question here since Jesus' teaching in the temple is not an example of an appeal to authority. Do you understand what this fallacy actually is?
You tell me why did Jesus even bother to discuss with them at the temple, even at the cost of making his parents worry? Why didn't he dismiss them as "ancient, non-apostolic Jewish men"? I don't appeal to any authority, I simply respect authority and follow that Ethiopian eunuch's example.
??? I guess you're having a bad day...
No I'm not, I'm actually having a good day, an interesting day, thanks for your concern.
Outside of your dark imagination, the truth is that I do nothing like what you assert that I do in the quotation above. I just don't accept that your argument is helped by trying to connect it to what the Church Fathers thought. I can read the Bible as well as they, and when I do, I don't see the false doctrine of Original Sin in it. This isn't a statement of pride but of the plain fact of the matter. And so, there is nothing in the fact that the "Church Fathers" are called the "Church Fathers" that obliges anyone to agree with them. Besides, consider how often they disagreed with one another!
The plain fact of the matter is that Jesus died for our SINS (1 Cor. 15:3), all sins originated from the sin which entered the world through Adam (Rom. 5:12), you're reasoning like the disciples by focusing on guilt, blame and liability (Jn. 9:2), none of those is my "dark imagination". If there were no original sin, then there shouldn't have been any original salvation - from sin, which is contrary to the Scripture, regarding the originality of God's salvation plan:
All who dwell on the earth will worship him, whose names have not been written in the Book of Life of the Lamb
slain from the foundation of the world. (Rev. 13:8)
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
He was in the beginning with God. (Jn. 1:1-2)
Yes.
If you have nothing to say, keep your uh-huhs to yourself. It is evident that the psalmist was lamenting his own sin nature, not in his wildest imagination would he insinuate his own mother.
Well, here, you demonstrate that you aren't comprehending what I'm writing. A baby who is innocent at birth is not one who is free of the effects, the consequences, of another person's sin but is a person who is free of any moral guilt of their own by virtue of their very young age.
All have sinned, and all means ALL, Rom. 3:9-20, the only exception is Lord Jesus himself. If a baby tragically passes away, then they just perish, Rom. 2:12; whether they're guilty or innocent soly depends on whether their names are written in the Lamb's book of life or not, Rev. 13:8, 20:15, and that's not for you or I to speculate. I don't comprehend what you're writing because there's nothing to comprehend, it's all just your speculations and unverified theories.
This is warning of the effect or consequence of a father's sin; it isn't a warning that God will confer personal moral responsibility and guilt upon the child for the iniquitous deeds of the child's father. We all bear the effects of Adam's sin in our spiritual separation from God from birth, in sickness and physical death, and so on, but none of us are morally responsible for Adam's sin, we aren't held guilty by God for a sin Adam committed.
Original sin is not just any particular sin which Adam was personally responsible for, but the same KIND of sin which we all repeat. Have you ever violated a strict order? Hid from the presence of God? Made excuses to shift blame? If yes, then you're guilty of Adam's sin - repeated in you.