I've explained this already. Paul unequivocally equates the Spirit of God with the Spirit of Christ (Rom 8:9). That is,
they are one and the same. I have stated previously that as the Holy Spirit is clearly distinct from the Father and the Son, and has actions of personal agency attributed to him, that the fact he is also called the Spirit of Christ and the Spirit of your Father, shows the close, intimate, interpersonal relationship between the three. Each is fully and truly God, and each interpenetrates the other (mutual indwelling), being of the same essence or substance, while remaining distinct. That is what theologians call perichoresis:
https://carm.org/doctrine-and-theology/what-is-perichoresis-and-is-it-biblical/
That is why Jesus says both he and the Father will make their home in believers, in addition to the saying the Holy Spirit will dwell in believers.
The Holy Spirit is a distinct person from the Father. Why would an intelligent, personal spirit (the Father) have or need an unintelligent, impersonal spirit? That would be redundant and in a lesser way. And why the continual distinction made between them throughout the NT? That would be pointless if they are one and the same. And why continually attribute actions of personal agency to the Holy Spirit if he were not an actual person? That would be deceptive, at best.
I don't either.
Yes.