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1 Corinthians 8:6 and The Holy Trinity

Jesus Christ is YHWH. That is eternal without beginning or end
Adam and Eve were immortal. That implies a beginning.
Eternal means there is no beginning and no end.
I do agree that Jesus had infused knowledge and the absence of the sin nature (of course).
 
Yes, Jesus told them already that he would send the Spirit and also ask the Father to send the Spirit in his name. That's the promise.
This is going to be brief as I have no desire to debate the trinity over and over.
You read this, and it wasn't clear on who Jesus calls His Father and what that Fathers stated promise was?
You don't agree that Peter quoted that promise from Joel?
If so, what is your proof? As its quite clear to me.

Acts 1:4
On one occasion, while he was eating with them, he gave them this command: “Do not leave Jerusalem, but wait for the gift my Father promised, which you have heard me speak about.

Joel 2:28
And afterward,
I will pour out my Spirit on all people.


When you're referencing the OT, it is begging the question to assume that Yahweh is only the Father.


There is one true God, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, who is the third person of the Trinity. I have given evidence that the Holy Spirit--the Spirit of God; the Spirit of Jesus Christ; the Spirit of Christ; the Spirit of his Son--is a person, by providing numerous verses which show actions of personal agency.


You have to show that, but that doesn't address the part of my post that you quoted:

The "another" is the Holy Spirit as another parakletos, but with reference to Jesus being the first parakletos--one who is like him but distinct from him. That is the plain reading of the text. It has nothing to do with Jesus having come from the Father and the Spirit is "another" from the Father, with no reference to Jesus. Remember, Jesus is the one speaking, not the Father.
Your the one who brought up "The Spirit of Christ" -Why would Jesus receive His own Spirit from the Father to send and Why doesn't He state "My Spirit" in regard to that Spirit like the Father does?
Neither does this address the part of my post you quoted:

In what way is the Holy Spirit like Jesus? He is also a "person," which is obvious because a parakletos (Helper, Counselor, Comforter, Advocate) cannot be a non-person. Jesus was the first parakletos, and remains so (1 John 2:1), but he was returning to the Father and the disciples still needed much help and guidance. It also means the Spirit is truly and fully God, in the same way Jesus is truly and fully God.
The Fathers Spirit would have the Fathers nature and that is not in question. The Fathers Spirit would be holy and a Spirit of truth. What's in question is if that Spirit a distinct person from the Father or the Spirit of the Father?

1 corth 8:6 - I don't believe someone removed the Spirit from this verse.
Considering Paul's greetings in several of His letters.
Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.

 
This is going to be brief as I have no desire to debate the trinity over and over.
You read this, and it wasn't clear on who Jesus calls His Father and what that Fathers stated promise was?
You don't agree that Peter quoted that promise from Joel?
If so, what is your proof? As its quite clear to me.

Acts 1:4
On one occasion, while he was eating with them, he gave them this command: “Do not leave Jerusalem, but wait for the gift my Father promised, which you have heard me speak about.

Joel 2:28
And afterward,
I will pour out my Spirit on all people.
But, again, you are begging the question by first assuming that only the Father is Yahweh. God, Yahweh said he would pour out his Spirit. Notice in Acts 1:4 that Jesus says "the gift my Father promised, which you have heard me speak about." Jesus talked about the promise to send the Spirit in John 14:16-17, 26.

There is no passage which suggests that the Holy Spirit is only the Spirit of the Father, and several passages which suggest otherwise, as I have shown.

Your the one who brought up "The Spirit of Christ" -Why would Jesus receive His own Spirit from the Father to send and Why doesn't He state "My Spirit" in regard to that Spirit like the Father does?
I've explained this already. Paul unequivocally equates the Spirit of God with the Spirit of Christ (Rom 8:9). That is, they are one and the same. I have stated previously that as the Holy Spirit is clearly distinct from the Father and the Son, and has actions of personal agency attributed to him, that the fact he is also called the Spirit of Christ and the Spirit of your Father, shows the close, intimate, interpersonal relationship between the three. Each is fully and truly God, and each interpenetrates the other (mutual indwelling), being of the same essence or substance, while remaining distinct. That is what theologians call perichoresis:

https://carm.org/doctrine-and-theology/what-is-perichoresis-and-is-it-biblical/

That is why Jesus says both he and the Father will make their home in believers, in addition to the saying the Holy Spirit will dwell in believers.

The Fathers Spirit would have the Fathers nature and that is not in question. The Fathers Spirit would be holy and a Spirit of truth. What's in question is if that Spirit a distinct person from the Father or the Spirit of the Father?
The Holy Spirit is a distinct person from the Father. Why would an intelligent, personal spirit (the Father) have or need an unintelligent, impersonal spirit? That would be redundant and in a lesser way. And why the continual distinction made between them throughout the NT? That would be pointless if they are one and the same. And why continually attribute actions of personal agency to the Holy Spirit if he were not an actual person? That would be deceptive, at best.

1 corth 8:6 - I don't believe someone removed the Spirit from this verse.
I don't either.

Considering Paul's greetings in several of His letters.
Grace and peace to you from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.
Yes.
 
But, again, you are begging the question by first assuming that only the Father is Yahweh. God, Yahweh said he would pour out his Spirit. Notice in Acts 1:4 that Jesus says "the gift my Father promised, which you have heard me speak about." Jesus talked about the promise to send the Spirit in John 14:16-17, 26.

There is no passage which suggests that the Holy Spirit is only the Spirit of the Father, and several passages which suggest otherwise, as I have shown.
For who knows a person’s thoughts except their own spirit within them? In the same way no one knows the thoughts of God except the Spirit of God. (singular)


I've explained this already. Paul unequivocally equates the Spirit of God with the Spirit of Christ (Rom 8:9). That is, they are one and the same. I have stated previously that as the Holy Spirit is clearly distinct from the Father and the Son, and has actions of personal agency attributed to him, that the fact he is also called the Spirit of Christ and the Spirit of your Father, shows the close, intimate, interpersonal relationship between the three. Each is fully and truly God, and each interpenetrates the other (mutual indwelling), being of the same essence or substance, while remaining distinct. That is what theologians call perichoresis:

https://carm.org/doctrine-and-theology/what-is-perichoresis-and-is-it-biblical/

That is why Jesus says both he and the Father will make their home in believers, in addition to the saying the Holy Spirit will dwell in believers.


The Holy Spirit is a distinct person from the Father. Why would an intelligent, personal spirit (the Father) have or need an unintelligent, impersonal spirit? That would be redundant and in a lesser way. And why the continual distinction made between them throughout the NT? That would be pointless if they are one and the same. And why continually attribute actions of personal agency to the Holy Spirit if he were not an actual person? That would be deceptive, at best.


I don't either.


Yes.
 
For who knows a person’s thoughts except their own spirit within them? In the same way no one knows the thoughts of God except the Spirit of God. (singular)
Yes, of course it's singular. That is the very point I am making, despite the Holy Spirit, the Spirit of God, also being called the Spirit of Christ, the Spirit of Jesus Christ, and the Spirit of his Son. That is what we have to make sense of and you have yet to show how your position can take all that into account.
 
Yes, of course it's singular. That is the very point I am making, despite the Holy Spirit, the Spirit of God, also being called the Spirit of Christ, the Spirit of Jesus Christ, and the Spirit of his Son. That is what we have to make sense of and you have yet to show how your position can take all that into account.
My Point
Ephesians
There is one body and one Spirit, just as you were called to one hope when you were called; 5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism; 6 one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all.

Jesus Himself tied that promised Gift of the Spirit to the Father
Peter quoted that prophecy-The Gift the Father Promised
"In the last days I will you out My Spirit"...

The Spirit Jesus sends He receives from the Father. Acts 2:33
Exalted to the right hand of God, he has received from the Father the promised Holy Spirit and has poured out what you now see and hear.

Why would Jesus receive His own Spirit from the Father?
Why does Jesus speak in terms of another in regard to His own Spirit?

Its clear to me the Father, as He stated, poured out His Spirit in Jesus's name as Jesus stated.

I have made my point very clear. You are introducing a Father who "might" have more than one Spirit He calls His own. I disagree with that assumption.
 
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