A look at 1 John 3.6

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As I understand, you don't use name "Yahweh" and use the erroneous name "Jesus". Yet, you correctly state, ""New" creatures have been empowered to obey God, all the time". God ordered to call on His Name and praise His Name (e.g., Psalm 148:11-13, Romans 10:13). God ordered to worship Him in spirit and truth (John 4:23,24). Therefore, when new creatures obey the Creator, they will use and revere the true names Yahweh and Yahshua.
Now there are two names ?
Doesn't that rebut your entire POV ?
I am sure that they hear. But are they pleased to hear this statement you made:
"If calling God Yahweh is important to you, call Him Yahweh.
I am comfortable calling Him Father, and Lord."?
Are they pleased to hear that you put your comfort above God's wishes for you and me to know and praise His name?
Kings of the earth, and all people; princes, and all judges of the earth: Both young men, and maidens; old men, and children: Let them praise the name of the Lord [Yahweh]: for his name alone is excellent; his glory is above the earth and heaven. (Psalms 148:11-13).
If the name men use while praying to Father through Jesus Christ is important to you, then you had better do what you think is right.
I will do the same, to the glory of God.
 
Now there are two names ?
Doesn't that rebut your entire POV ?
I don't understand how this rebut my POV. There is the Father and there is the Son. Both have names, Father-Yahweh and Son-Yahshua.

If the name men use while praying to Father through Jesus Christ is important to you, then you had better do what you think is right.
I will do the same, to the glory of God.

What do you mean by "I will do the same"?
By the way, when I pray to the Father, I usually use "Father" as you do. But I know and respect His name Yahweh, and when I talk to others I use that name. I don't pray in the name of Jesus as it is not Savior's original name, as simple investigation will show. Love of the truth is important (2 Thess 2:10).
 
I don't understand how this rebut my POV. There is the Father and there is the Son. Both have names, Father-Yahweh and Son-Yahshua.
They are one.
What do you mean by "I will do the same"?
By the way, when I pray to the Father, I usually use "Father" as you do. But I know and respect His name Yahweh, and when I talk to others I use that name. I don't pray in the name of Jesus as it is not Savior's original name, as simple investigation will show. Love of the truth is important (2 Thess 2:10).
It is written..."Who art thou that judgest another man's servant? to his own master he standeth or falleth. Yea, he shall be holden up: for God is able to make him stand.
One man esteemeth one day above another: another esteemeth every day alike. Let every man be fully persuaded in his own mind.
He that regardeth the day, regardeth it unto the Lord; and he that regardeth not the day, to the Lord he doth not regard it. He that eateth, eateth to the Lord, for he giveth God thanks; and he that eateth not, to the Lord he eateth not, and giveth God thanks." (Rom 14:4-6)
Be persuaded in your own mind, like I am.
 
How do you understand that? Is there a difference between the Father and the Son?
Yes, there is a difference.
Just as there was a difference between God and the Word.
Separate, but one.
It is written..."...and not after Christ.
9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily." (Col 2:9)
 
Yes, there is a difference.
Just as there was a difference between God and the Word.
Separate, but one.
It is written..."...and not after Christ.
9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily." (Col 2:9)
I agree. Therefore, this difference and unity are reflected in different and at the same time unified names Yahweh and Yahshua (Yahweh is salvation).
 
I don't understand how this rebut my POV. There is the Father and there is the Son. Both have names, Father-Yahweh and Son-Yahshua.



What do you mean by "I will do the same"?
By the way, when I pray to the Father, I usually use "Father" as you do. But I know and respect His name Yahweh, and when I talk to others I use that name. I don't pray in the name of Jesus as it is not Savior's original name, as simple investigation will show. Love of the truth is important (2 Thess 2:10).


Please share some scriptures that teach us the name of the Father is Yahweh and the name of the Son is Yahshua.
 
Translations such as the ESV are more true to what John actually writes:

1Jn 3:6 No one who abides in him keeps on sinning; no one who keeps on sinning has either seen him or known him.(ESV)

The issue is one of Greek grammar, with "sinning" being in the present tense, meaning an action that is ongoing. What John is speaking of isn't the heresy of sinless perfection, but rather he is speaking of one whose life is characterized by ongoing, habitual, willful, unrepentant sin.
Isn't one sin a year, unrepentant sinning ?
 
As far as unbelievers go, no,
You will need to elaborate.
but it wouldn't be just one sin in a year.
Probably not.
For a believer it might be an unconfessed sin.
The fact of the matter is that one sin a year manifests a lack of repentance from sin.
Those reborn of God's seed are as likely to commit one sin as an apple seed is likely to bring forth one pumpkin.
 
You will need to elaborate.

Probably not.
Sorry, I changed what I was writing. I meant yes, as far as unbelievers go. Which is obvious.

The fact of the matter is that one sin a year manifests a lack of repentance from sin.
It absolutely does not. That is not from the Bible.

Those reborn of God's seed are as likely to commit one sin as an apple seed is likely to bring forth one pumpkin.
Again, absolutely not from the Bible. This is the kind of error based on twisting Scripture through ignoring context and eisegesis.
 
Sorry, I changed what I was writing. I meant yes, as far as unbelievers go. Which is obvious.
That's OK, I made a mistake typing before.
I think it was in 2007 ? :hysterical
It absolutely does not. That is not from the Bible.
Our definitions of the word "repent" are not the same.
I define repentance...from sin, as turning from sin.
More sin, busts the repentance.
Acts 3:26..."Unto you first God, having raised up his Son Jesus, sent him to bless you, in turning away every one of you from his iniquities."
Again, absolutely not from the Bible. This is the kind of error based on twisting Scripture through ignoring context and eisegesis.
Can thistles bring forth figs ?
Can thorn bushes bear grapes ? (Matt 7:16)
Can God's seed bring forth liars, thieves, or murderers ?
The answer to all three questions is NO.
 
Can thistles bring forth figs ?
Can thorn bushes bear grapes ? (Matt 7:16)
Can God's seed bring forth liars, thieves, or murderers ?
The answer to all three questions is NO.

The seed refers to our spirit not our flesh.


Again your are misguided by the unbiblical doctrine that teaches our physical body was born again at water baptism.
 
Not at all.
I recognize that some of I John 1 pertains to those who walk in darkness and not in the light.
Verses 6, 8, and 10, for instance.
All those verses are addressing believers and warning them that if they claim to be without sin, they are self-deceived, don't have the truth, make God a liar, and don't have his word in them. It's a warning to those who think they're saved, but actually aren't.

I John 2:1 is the "any man's" way into the light.
That follows off the heels of chapter 1:

1Jn 1:8 If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. <--false believers
1Jn 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. <--true believers
1Jn 1:10 If we say we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us. <--false believers
1Jn 2:1 My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. <--true believers
1Jn 2:2 He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world. (ESV)

Once again, we see that from the very start of chapter 1 and continuing throughout, on past these verses, John uses first person plural pronouns--"us," "we," "our." He is clearly speaking about himself, the other apostles and disciples, and then including all believers. That is confirmed in 2:1 by "My little children;" that does not describe unbelievers. More than that, in verse 2 he clearly differentiates between "our sins" and "the sins of the whole world."

A way already taken by those who are there.
What do you mean by that?

1 John 5:16 is the same; a way for new converts, and posers, to become real Christians.
No, again, it is speaking to believers, which is obvious because he says:

1Jn 5:16 If anyone sees his brother committing a sin not leading to death, he shall ask, and God will give him life—to those who commit sins that do not lead to death. There is sin that leads to death; I do not say that one should pray for that. (ESV)

James affirms this as well:

Jas 5:13 Is anyone among you suffering? Let him pray. Is anyone cheerful? Let him sing praise.
Jas 5:14 Is anyone among you sick? Let him call for the elders of the church, and let them pray over him, anointing him with oil in the name of the Lord.
Jas 5:15 And the prayer of faith will save the one who is sick, and the Lord will raise him up. And if he has committed sins, he will be forgiven.
Jas 5:16 Therefore, confess your sins to one another and pray for one another, that you may be healed. The prayer of a righteous person has great power as it is working. (ESV)

That is no longer a truth.
We can be as holy and pure as Jesus was/is now, thanks to the sacrifice of Jesus Christ.
He is...the way !
I posted that you ignored the implication of Heb. 4:14-16--that because only Jesus was and is sinless, we are not:

Heb 4:14 Since then we have a great high priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus, the Son of God, let us hold fast our confession.
Heb 4:15 For we do not have a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin.
Heb 4:16 Let us then with confidence draw near to the throne of grace, that we may receive mercy and find grace to help in time of need. (ESV)

It is clearly stated that we, which is all believers, have weaknesses. Notice the clear implication--Jesus can "sympathize with our weaknesses" because he was "in every respect . . . tempted as we are," but was "without sin."

And you have responded: "That is no longer truth." You do realize that you are denying what Scripture plainly states, yes? That is what happens when one falls into error, especially heresy--it overflows into other doctrines. Such is the nature of sin.

It will be too late to make your allegiances know by then.
Which means you also then must deny the doctrine of justification. Like I said, such is the nature of sin.

Adherence to God is a choice we make over and over again, during our new life in Christ.
Of course, but we also fail at times. That is made abundantly clear in the NT.

Living free of Adam's influence is automatic for those who have crucified the flesh, with the affections and lusts, (Gal 5:24), and been reborn of God's seed. (1 John 3:9)
"New" creatures have been empowered to obey God, all the time.
We can, but we don't. We choose not to sometimes, for various, sinful reasons.

Our definitions of the word "repent" are not the same.
I define repentance...from sin, as turning from sin.
Repentance is to change one's mind, to turn from sin and to God. It begins with confession though. To confess is to agree with God that we sinned. A person can confess without repenting, which is just an empty confession.

More sin, busts the repentance.
Well, that depends. Your blanket statements do a great disservice to all that the Bible states on the issue.

Can thistles bring forth figs ?
Can thorn bushes bear grapes ? (Matt 7:16)
In speaking of false prophets. You need to keep things in context.