Of course there is more than one cup. Here is one.The lesson remains that you consider the cup of the Lord that He drank from, and the baptism that the Apostles had the same as Christ, is not for anyone else, and that's nonsense, unless you think you can show more than one cup and more than one baptism.
Mat 26:27 Then he took a cup, and when he had given thanks, he gave it to them, saying, “Drink from it, all of you. 28 This is my blood of the[a] covenant, which is poured out for many for the forgiveness of sins.
This is the cup of the Lord supper that Jesus instituted the night he was betrayed.
Here’s another
My 10:38-39 But Jesus said unto them, Ye know not what ye ask: can ye drink of the cup that I drink of? and be baptized with the baptism that I am baptized with? And they said unto him, We can. And Jesus said unto them, Ye shall indeed drink of the cup that I drink of; and with the baptism that I am baptized withal shall ye be baptized:
This cup and this baptism was still to come this has nothing to do with him being immersed in water by John the Baptist. He is referring to the suffering he will endure and tells the apostles that they too would partake of this cup of suffering. This was not given to everybody but was given directly to the apostles.
Jesus prayed to the father....remove this CUP from me.
he told Peter to put his sword away...”shall I not drink the cup the father has given me”
You are misusing these verses by taking them out of their context and creating your own doctrine