Drew
Member
You seem to argue that just because "free will" is not mentionned in these definitions, it is not there. Well here is the definition of a male:mondar said:First, the concept of free will is not inherent in the word "anapologeetos" (witout excuse). Can you show me any lexicon that includes the term free will in the definition? Below is an abbreviated defination from Thayer.
Thayer Definition:
1) without defense or excuse
2) that which cannot be defended, inexcusable
Part of Speech: adjective
To come up with the term having the concept of free will implied, should not it be part of the definition at least in one lexicon?
male: a male person : a man or a boy b: an individual that produces small usually motile gametes (as spermatozoa or spermatozoids) which fertilize the eggs of a female
Do definitions (a) and (b), which focus on "maleness" in respect to being a human being say that male human beings have penises? No they do not. Do male human beings have penises? Yes they do. If I were to take your line of reasoning, I would question the assertion that males have penises, because the dictionary definition does not indicate this.
It is simply incorrect to argue as you do here. The absence of specific reference to "free will" in relation to the concept of an excuse is not evidence of the lack a link. In fact, I suggest that the reason why "free will" is not mentioned in such definitions is precisely because it is so foudational to the very concept, that it would only be stating the obvious to explicitly mention this.
I could make precisely the same accusation to you, but I won't because it would be unfair. You say that "free will" is not bundled into being "without excuse". Well, I could claim that "lack of freedom" is a concept that you have imported into the notion of being "in slavery".mondar said:There is no circular reasoning on my part. I am just doing straightforward exegesis in the passage, you are not. You are importing concepts foreign to the context.
I know you feel strongly about free will. But it is simply not in Romans 1:20. Free will is a concept that you are bringing into the text (isogesis) and not taking from the text (exegesis).
What would your counterargument to this be? Presumably you will say that "absence of freedom is entailed by the concept of slavery" and would appeal to the social contract by which we all agree that, indeed, slaves do not have freedom. And you would be right to do so.
I am doing precisely the same thing in respect to the notion of being "without excuse" - I appeal to the meaning of the concept, as universally held by people. And people universally hold that to be "without excuse" is to be in a state that you had the freedom to avoid being in.
Consciously or not, you read Scriptural statements that imply no free will, and, in the process of reading the words in those statement, you confer meaning based on the societally agreed meaning of the word. Otherwise you would get nowhere.
You cannot then deny me the same right. I read "without excuse" in Romans 1:20 and appeal to the universally held notion that free will is implied. You read "slave" in Romans 6 and do the exact same thing in respect to the concept of being a slave.
The reader will know that your statement "Free will is a concept that you are bringing into the text (isogesis)" can be echoed back at you thus in respect to stuff in Romans 6 "Absence of Free will is a concept that you are bringing into the text that says we were slaves to sin (isogesis).
I agree that the concept of free will is not explicitly present in "without excuse"
You have to agree that the concept of "lack of freedom" is not explictly present in the concept of being "in slavery".