I would like to return to the passage where Jesus instructs his followers to purchase 2 swords. I will argue that the most likely intended meaning is that Jesus wants to use the swords to create the appearance of being a trouble-maker, in order to facilitate his arrest (call this interpretation "A"). Beware of any who would pre-emptively dismiss this possibility - that is a sure sign of someone who is threatened and cannot deal with challenge. Clearly, the position I am arguing for is at least possibly correct, as is the position that Jesus is telling His followers that it is acceptable to use force in self-defence (call this interpretation "B"). Which position, A or B, is better supported by the text itself, and by the broader Biblical context? Let's see.
Here is the text from the NASB:
[35] And He said to them, “When I sent you out without money belt and bag and sandals, you did not lack anything, did you?” They said, “No, nothing.” [36]And He said to them, “But now, whoever has a money belt is to take it along, likewise also a bag, and whoever has no sword is to sell his coat and buy one. [37] For I tell you that this which is written must be fulfilled in Me, ‘And He was numbered with transgressors’; for that which refers to Me has its fulfillment.” [38]They said, “Lord, look, here are two swords.” And He said to them, “It is enough.”
Consider verses 35 and 36: Viewed in isolation (a fatal error in exegesis), these sound like a provisioning instruction - Jesus is instructing His followers to equip themselves to face future hardship. That would seem to support position B over position A. There are a number of reasons for this, which I need not get into since I am conceding the point that B seems to be a better explanation than A for the instruction to buy a sword.
However, its all downhill from here in respect to position B. What proponents of position B - that Jesus is legitimating the use of weapons - will never mention is the text that follows. Note the "For" at the beginning of verse 37. There is no doubt what this "for" means: it indicates that what follows is an elaboration of the reason for the instruction that Jesus has just given. And the reason is this: a prophecy that Jesus is to be seen as a transgressor must be fulfilled. This, by itself mind you, is enough to rule out B and affirm A: Jesus is telling us why the sword needs to be purchased. And it is not to for self-defence, it is so that Jesus will be seen as a member of an armed band of trouble-makers.
Note how this makes perfect sense in the larger context - Jesus has very good symbolic reasons for wanting the crucifixion to occur at Passover. He therefore needs to create the conditions that will stimulate the authorities to arrest Him. And being a member of an armed band is as good a means as any to assure that arrest.
At the risk of "spiking the football" on this, imagine the following ridiculous variant of the text at issue:
Buy a knife, for a prophecy needs to be fulfilled that I will be be seen as a member of that group of people who whittle wood.
It is, franky, absurd to try to argue that this text supports the use of force in self-defence. It is clear from the second part of the sentence that instruction to buy the knife has nothing to do with this whatsoever, and that the instruction is motivated by the need to fulfill a prophecy about being seen as a whittler of wood. I trust the point is clear.
But there's more. Consider verse 37: two swords are enough. If the issue were really that Jesus is outfitting his disciples with provisions, including swords for self-defence, then clearly there is no sense in setting a limit of two - presumably each person should have a sword.
The way this passage is used to support the "use of force" position is as shameless as the way modern politicians will take a statement from an opponent out of context and thereby entirely change the meaning of the original statement.