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Christians are to follow Jesus' steps 1 Pet 2:21, how?

Alfred Persson said:
Bias? You repeated the Society's "pour" argument; I refuted it proving even men are "poured out" and yet remain persons, not active forces.

I am shocked by your comment. I thought you would address the argument, not accuse me of bias.
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As I stated previously, Ruach and Pneuma are used in multiple ways.
 
Dorothy Mae said:
I need a new thread. Only JWs say those in power in their organization are “faithful slaves.”
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Although I believe each faith will develop language unique to their faith, God did prophecy this maam: Zep 3:9 For then will I turn to the peoples of a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of Jehovah, to serve him with one consent.

So even God's people will have sayings that are not particular to other faiths.
 
Alfred Persson said:
That's incoherent. A person remains a person after being "poured out".
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A person is a human being regarded as an individual sir. I would suppose that to some they would still be considered a person after they died, although like the Bible states for most of us the memory of them would soon be forgotten Ecc 9:5.

On thing is certain they will be retained in God's memory Jn 5:28,29

What do you find incoherent about that Alfred? Seems easy to me sir.
 
Highway54 said:
Christians are to follow Jesus' steps 1 Pet 2:21, how?
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SPECIAL TOPIC: GREEK GRAMMATICAL TERMS, VII.

2:21 "For you have been called for this purpose" This is an AORIST PASSIVE INDICATIVE. In context this phrase means that believers were called to emulate Jesus' life, which brings glory to God and salvation to mankind. This is a call to submissiveness on behalf of all believers which will bring spiritual maturity and a powerful gospel witness (i.e., Eph. 5:21).

That believers are called by God to suffering is a startling statement, especially to a western culture which thinks of Christianity in terms of (1) "what's in it for me" or (2) a health, wealth, and prosperity gospel.

The persecution of believers is a real possibility in a fallen world (cf. Matt. 5:10-16; Acts 14:22; Rom. 5:3-4; 8:17; Phil. 1:29; 3:10; 1 Thess. 3:3-4; 2 Tim. 3:12; James 1:2-4; 1 Pet. 2:19-23; 3:14; 4:12-19).

SPECIAL TOPIC: CALLED

SPECIAL TOPIC: WHY DO CHRISTIANS SUFFER?

"Christ also suffered"
The suffering of the Messiah was a surprise to the Jews who expected a conquering military Messiah. There are specific hints in the OT (cf. Gen. 3:15; Psalm 22; Isaiah 53; Zechariah 11). Jesus Himself showed His Apostles (cf. Matt. 16:21; 17:12,22-23; 20:18-19) and the early church these prophetic passages (cf. Luke 24:25-27).

His suffering and death were an integral part of the apostolic preaching of the early church in Acts called the Kerygma (cf. Acts 2:23; 3:13-14,18; 17:3; 26:23).

There are several key theological truths connected with His suffering.

Christ is our example (1 Pet. 2:21)
Christ bore our sins on the cross (1 Pet. 2:24)
Christ's work caused us to die to sin and live for God (1 Pet. 2:24)
Christ is the Shepherd and Guardian of our souls (1 Pet. 2:25)
The term "suffered" (epathen) is found in MSS P72, A, B, and C, but other ancient MSS, P81, א have "died" (apethanen). The UBS4 gives the first reading an "A" rating (certain), assuming that "died" has been transposed by copyists from 1 Pet. 3:18.

SPECIAL TOPIC: THE KERYGMA OF THE EARLY CHURCH

SPECIAL TOPIC: A SUFFERING MESSIAH

"an example"
The NT gives three reasons why Christ came:

To be the vicarious, substitutionary atonement. He, the innocent, blameless (cf. 1 Pet. 2:22) Lamb of God (cf. John 1:29), offered Himself on our behalf (cf. Mark 10:45; 2 Cor. 5:21; 1 Pet. 2:24).
To be the full revelation of the Father (cf. John 1:1-14; 14:8-9).
To be an example for believers (cf. 1 Pet. 2:21) to emulate. He is the ideal Israelite, the perfect man, what humanity should have been, could be, and one day, will be.
SPECIAL TOPIC: WHY DO CHRISTIANS SUFFER?

2:22 "who committed no sin"
This is a quote from Isa. 53:9. This concept is also expressed in John 8:46, 14:30; Luke 23:41; 2 Cor. 5:21; Heb. 4:15, 7:26-27; 1 Pet. 1:19; 2:22; 3:18, 1 John 3:5. He could die on our behalf because He did not have to die for His own sin!

"nor was any deceit found in his mouth"
Jesus was the ideal Israelite (cf. Isa. 53:9 and Zeph. 3:13).

2:23 "while being reviled, He did not revile in return" There is a series of three imperfect active indicatives, which mean repeated action in past time. The first one is an allusion to Isa. 53:7. Jesus fulfilled this prophecy in His trials before Caiaphas, Annas the High Priest, Pilate, and Herod.

"while suffering, He uttered no threats"
He did speak, but in forgiveness to all those involved in His death (cf. Luke 23:34).

"but kept entrusting Himself to Him who judges righteously"
This entrusting was the normal attitude of Jesus' life. It is seen so powerfully in Luke 22:42 and 23:46.

SPECIAL TOPIC: JUDGMENT IN THE NT

2:24 "He Himself bore our sins" This is obviously from Isa. 53:4,11,12 (see full note online in Isaiah). The term "bore" is used of a sacrifice in Lev. 14:20 and James 2:21. This is the essence of the vicarious, substitutionary atonement (cf. Mark 10:45; Rom. 5:6,8,10; 2 Cor. 5:21).

SPECIAL TOPIC: THE KERYGMA OF THE EARLY CHURCH

"in His body on the cross"
Although there is no specific Gnostic element connected to 1 Peter (an early Christian/Greek philosophy asserted that Jesus was not truly human, cf. Colossians; 1 Timothy; 1 John). This text is another powerful affirmation of the true humanity and physical death of Jesus of Nazareth (cf. Col. 1:22).

The phrase "on the cross" may have a connection to Deut. 21:23, where anyone who was impaled on a stake after death (i.e., tree) instead of being properly buried was cursed by God. By Jesus' day the rabbis had interpreted this as including Roman crucifixion. Jesus was accused of blasphemy which, according to the Mosaic Law, demanded stoning. Why then did the Jewish leaders want Him crucified, which required Roman approval and ceremonial defilement for them before the Passover? Some have said they did this because the Jews did not have the authority under Roman law to put someone to death, but what about Stephen in Acts 7?

I think they wanted Jesus crucified to suggest that this messianic pretender was cursed by God! But this is exactly what happened. Jesus became the curse for us (cf. Gal. 3:13). The OT itself had become a curse (cf. Col. 2:14). It states that the soul that sins must die (cf. 2 Kgs. 14:6; Ezek. 18:4,20). But all humans have sinned (cf. Rom. 3:9-18,23; Gal. 3:22). Therefore, all deserve to die and were under its death penalty. Jesus the sinless Lamb of God (John 1:29) bore the sin of the entire fallen world (cf. Rom. 5:12-21)
Utley

Sure glad you brought this up.
J.
 
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