Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
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https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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W 2:
I'm not sure that what you say is actually self-evident from Scripture itself. (Mind you, there are extra-Biblical sources will all sorts of ideas about angels, but these are not authoritative.)
I certainly do not see it that way.
In Gen. 1:26, God is speaking to the angels and declaring that he will create man in the likeness and image of God and the angels. Hence, when angels are described in the Bible, they are shown to be young men. If man was created in the image of the angels and man can mate with woman, there is nothing, IMO, in scripture, which precludes angels from having the same capability.
Hence, when I read Gen. 6, it makes perfect sense to me that the fallen angels mated with flesh woman and produced hybrid people. IMO, that was the basis for God having to flood the land -- it was necessary to drown these hybrid people, who were threatenin the pure bloodline to Christ.
I am not using extra-biblical sources. The definition of 'God', in the superlative sense, as given in the Hebrew manuscripts settles it for me.
See Gen. 1:26 -Gen 1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.Here, God refers to Himself in the superlative sense. So, when looking at the definition of the Hebrew word elohim [rendered as 'God'], one sees -
H430Hence, it is clear to me that God is speaking to the angels in 1:26. That is the basis for my conclusion in my prior post. It was only based upon the Bible.
אלהים
'ĕlôhı̂ym
el-o-heem'
Plural of H433; gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God; occasionally applied by way of deference to magistrates; and sometimes as a superlative: - angels, X exceeding, God (gods) (-dess, -ly), X (very) great, judges, X mighty.
God flooded the earth because of wickedness, pure and simple.
A:
Yes, Noah and his family were preserved from judgment.
And the spiritual lesson is, we need to be preserved from judgment by taking heed to God's gracious provision in the Person of the Lord Jesus.
I don't see anything specific about angels mating, in the history of Noah.
God flooded the earth because of wickedness, pure and simple.
W:
The existence of angels and the fact that in the New Testament we learn about the Son of God 'without Him was not anything made that was made', does not in itself prove anything about the supposed ability of angels to mate with women.
True -- and, I might add that I never said that such NT scriptures in the Book of John made any such inferrence.
However, we learn from Gen. 1:26 that mankind was made in the image of God and the angels. And, one sees in Gen. 6 that offspring are the result of the mating between fallen angels and flesh woman.
So, the proof is quite overwhelming to support the fact that angels did sire offspring.
W2:
Far from overwhelming, I think that the inferences mentioned rest substantially on extra-Biblical sources and interpretations, though I realize that some groups do make such assumptions part of their essential theology.
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Fact is also that death marks the end of a marriage, whereby according to the NT the person is thereby released from it. How can this apply to an angel?
It doesn't apply to angels. Angels don't marry in their realm. In fact, there is no reference to a 'female' angel in the Bible [that I am aware of].
The "giant skeletons" were a hoax.
As for "angels having sex with earthly women", what is an angel, and what form to they possess? Would an angel have . . . . "the ability". . . . to have sex? I would hope that anyone would see the problem with this and recognize the impossibility of it.
W:
Well, then, it's hard to argue that angels don't marry AND that they mate with women.
I am not using extra-biblical sources. The definition of 'God', in the superlative sense, as given in the Hebrew manuscripts settles it for me.
See Gen. 1:26 -Gen 1:26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.Here, God refers to Himself in the superlative sense. So, when looking at the definition of the Hebrew word elohim [rendered as 'God'], one sees -
H430Hence, it is clear to me that God is speaking to the angels in 1:26. That is the basis for my conclusion in my prior post. It was only based upon the Bible.
אלהים
'ĕlôhı̂ym
el-o-heem'
Plural of H433; gods in the ordinary sense; but specifically used (in the plural thus, especially with the article) of the supreme God; occasionally applied by way of deference to magistrates; and sometimes as a superlative: - angels, X exceeding, God (gods) (-dess, -ly), X (very) great, judges, X mighty.
I'd like to take a look at that assumption if we could. Lets see if we can find a pattern in scripture and go from there ok? We'll start just a few verses back from verse 26.Hence, it is clear to me that God is speaking to the angels in 1:26. That is the basis for my conclusion in my prior post. It was only based upon the Bible.