JUST AS CLEARLY, Jesus (not me) asks The Father for things to occur in the future for not just His disciples there with Him, but for all who believe in me through their word:
John 17:20-22 (LEB) “And I do not ask on behalf of these only, but also on behalf of those who believe in me through their word, that they all may be one, just as you, Father, are in me and I am in you, that they also may be in us, in order that the world may believe that you sent me. And the glory that you have given to me, I have given to them, in order that they may be one, just as we are one—
Yes, that is God's will that all will be saved.
I’m a little taken aback (don’t understand the motivation/hermeneutics) of someone with such a acute understanding of John 17:6-19 as to why that person wouldn’t also extend that keen contextual understanding into verses 20-22 Here Jesus also asks for, not just those disciples, to be one with Him and the Father, but also for all who believe in me through their word (the disciple’s word, i.e. their message/writings).
Can you explain how I might be misunderstanding v 20-22 to be directly supporting OSAS? Did Jesus pray for something to happen that will not, in fact, happen?
What verses apply to His disciples should be read in that context.
20 “I do not pray for these alone, but also for those who will believe in Me through their word; 21 that they all may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I in You; that they also may be one in Us, that the world may believe that You sent Me. John 17:20-21
Jesus prayed for all who will believe in Him.
If a person believe's in Him... for a while, then no longer believes in Him, do they believe in Him.
I just don't see any trace of OSAS saved in these verse's.
Please show me where John 17:20-21 teaches that a person can believe in Him, then live a sinful life, become a homosexual, or convert to Islam, or be a liar, and still be guaranteed somehow to inherit the kingdom of God.
JLB