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Fallen man

Dave... said:
Revelation 17:8 The beast that thou sawest was, and is not; and shall ascend out of the bottomless pit, and go into perdition: and they that dwell on the earth shall wonder, whose names were not written in the book of life from the foundation of the world, when they behold the beast that was, and is not, and yet is.
I submit that it is simply not enough to post a verse that is consistent with your position, you need to make an actual case that the verse does not admit to other interpretations. Its easy to point out a reading of the above that is consistent with an Arminian position - namely that the "from the foundation of the world" remark indicates foreknowledge rather than pre-destination. If you can make substantive arguments that rule such an interpretation out, then by all means please do so. I humbly suggest that you avoid arguments that are directly or indirectly circular.
 
Dave... said:
I think that you are taking a worldly wisdom approach because your beliefs seem to be based on on your rejection of what others believe that the Bible teaches, instead of scripture that was sewn into your heart in your search for the truth. This is evidenced in the fact that you very rarely build a positive presentation of what you believe with scripture. Just a though. BTW, I'm not saying that you're you're not saved, I just thought you're approach to scripture should be telling you something.
Seriously, Dave, each post that is made is like a hanging curveball over the heart of the plate - it is so easy to just lay into it. If you guys tempt me with undefended claims, post verses that obviously are open to multiple interpretations, beg the question, criticize sound argumentation principles, engage in obvious dismissiveness (albeit politely expressed, I grant you) etc. - of course I am going to be so busy pointing out all the flaws that I won't have time to build a positive case. I am kept too busy with what are frankly very iffy arguments. Do you think other readers won't recognize the problem with suggestions that my arguments are invalid because "I don't like what the Scriptures say"?

All that being said, I hope to try to make a positive case. If and when I do, I will not simply post verses and "declare" them to support my case. I will do the real, hard, and sometimes annoying task of justifying my conclusions.
 
Ephesians 1:4-5 According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,

Revelation 17:8 The beast that thou sawest was, and is not; and shall ascend out of the bottomless pit, and go into perdition: and they that dwell on the earth shall wonder, whose names were not written in the book of life from the foundation of the world, when they behold the beast that was, and is not, and yet is.
I am going to propose another view to the above scriptures other than “foreknowledge†because God already knows “everything that there is to know†and “predestination†which offers “we don’t reeeeeeally have a choiceâ€Â

There are two foundations of the world. One in Genesis1 and the other in Revelations21. One the foundations of the world that we know, other the foundations of the world that is yet to come. God can foreknow by (“Psalm 129:1 O Lord, you have examined my heart and know everything about me.â€Â) examining the hearts of people. In this scenario God doesn’t have to foreknow people before their existence of Genesis1. But He can foreknow them by examining their hearts before the foundations of the world in Revelation21. I don’t think God has psychic foreknowledge of everything that there is to know but foreknowledge according to His wisdom that He has of His creation. So the above “foundations of the world†could be referring to Rev21? But this could be me trying to read into the scripture my personal interpretations. It could be faulty, so please point it out so I can re-evaluate my position.
 
I don’t think God has psychic foreknowledge of everything that there is to know but foreknowledge according to His wisdom that He has of His creation.

I wanted to clarify my above statement just so you know I am not just making this up without biblical proof.

How many times in Genesis 1 do we read "and God saw that it was good"? He did not foreknow this "goodness" but after He saw (examined) then He declared it was good. If God is psychic He did not have to see to know and declare it was good.

Now read Psalm 129:1-6 O Lord, you have examined my heart and know everything about me. If God is a psychic He doesn’t have to examine my heart to know everything about me He would already know. The concept of God “knows everything that there is to know†doesn’t sit right with me and I haven’t found scriptures in the bible that support this but just the fundamental rhetoric.

Prophesies to me are Gods plans, not His foreknowledge of what is going to happen in the next millennia.
 
2 Questions

Do you believe that man's will is fallen to the extent that he can't respond to the Gospel? (ex. dead in sin)

Do you pray for unsaved loved ones to come to the faith?

If you answered "no" to the first question and "yes" to the second, could you explain the inconsistent logic?
 
Do you believe that man's will is fallen to the extent that he
can't respond to the Gospel? (ex. dead in sin)

I see many people around me currently respond to the Gospel,
they decide to drop their old religion in order to come to Jesus.

The question if their will is involved is rather academic and irrelevant
while I watch them changing their mind.

Do you pray for unsaved loved ones to come to the faith?

No, actually we talk to them. With me just as a "backup force" in this
because my wife is the one that has the heart to get involved and seems
to be running into people wherever she goes, and invites them for clarification
if they want to know more.

But it's amazing what God can do if people just drop the arguments
and get practical with Him. It's a lovely change that made me think
what...if anything, did I really know about what God is pleased with?
 
JM said:
2 Questions

Do you believe that man's will is fallen to the extent that he can't respond to the Gospel? (ex. dead in sin)

Do you pray for unsaved loved ones to come to the faith?

If you answered "no" to the first question and "yes" to the second, could you explain the inconsistent logic?

No to the first

Yes to the second

Where is the inconsistent logic?

I submit there is clearly no problem of logic. There is no inconsistency in logic is asking God to "soften a person's heart" all the time recognizing that the person has a free will faculty to reject the gift of salvation. I never denied that God can influence the mind of someone, just not to the point of taking away their free will.

Analogy: Let's say Fred's brother needs a kidney transplant and Fred is the only possible donor. Let's say Fred is initially resistant. Fred's relative pray that God will cause Fred to donate the kidney. God then "fiddles" with Fred's mind, causes (yes, causes) Fred to think about the good times he shared with his brother as kids, etc. Fred then makes a free will decision to give the kidney. Prayer has worked - God has influenced Fred without forcing him to make his final decision.

Now your question brings an interesting issue to light. You might contend that a believer in free will has to take the position that any influence from God might pass through Fred's "free will filter" and therefore Fred has total control of the situation. Since he is resistant at first, we can expect he will "reject" God's influence. So prayer for Fred cannot work.

I do not think the believer in free will is forced into such a situation at all. Not all the thoughts that enter our mind are "screened" by our free will faculty. I do not choose to feel hunger, pain, delight, etc. There is much going on in the human mind that has nothing to do with free will. But some things clearly do seem to "pass through" that faculty - any kind of decision not made under duress or compulsion for example. I freely choose to go to a movie, even if some the smell of popcorn or some TV trailer stimulates my mind (without any free will decision) to desire going to the movie.

I would be interested in knowing where you think the inconsistency lies.
 
Dave... said:
The same Jesus that said this?

John 10:26-27 But you do not believe, because you are not of My sheep, as I said to you. My sheep hear My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me.

Why didn't Jesus say 'you are not of My sheep because you don't believe...everyone hears My voice, but my sheep believe'?

See the difference?

Why did Paul ask these questions...

Romans 9
What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God?...

...Certainly not!

For He says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whomever I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whomever I will have compassion." So then it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God who shows mercy. For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, "For this very purpose I have raised you up, that I may show My power in you, and that My name may be declared in all the earth." Therefore He has mercy on whom He wills, and whom He wills He hardens.


You will say to me then, "Why does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will?"

But indeed, O man, who are you to reply against God? Will the thing formed say to him who formed it, "Why have you made me like this?" Does not the potter have power over the clay, from the same lump to make one vessel for honor and another for dishonor? What if God, wanting to show His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, And that He might make known the riches of His glory on the vessels of mercy, which He had prepared beforehand for glory,"

That's what this is really all about, isn't it?

Dave


This stuff doesn't answer the question, not as far as I can see.
 
Dave... said:
Why did Paul ask these questions...

Romans 9
What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God?...

...Certainly not!

For He says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whomever I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whomever I will have compassion." So then it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God who shows mercy. For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, "For this very purpose I have raised you up, that I may show My power in you, and that My name may be declared in all the earth." Therefore He has mercy on whom He wills, and whom He wills He hardens.


You will say to me then, "Why does He still find fault? For who has resisted His will?"

But indeed, O man, who are you to reply against God? Will the thing formed say to him who formed it, "Why have you made me like this?" Does not the potter have power over the clay, from the same lump to make one vessel for honor and another for dishonor? What if God, wanting to show His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, And that He might make known the riches of His glory on the vessels of mercy, which He had prepared beforehand for glory,"

That's what this is really all about, isn't it?

Dave


Paul has committed a blatant fallacy with that argument. (And if God inspired that part of the Bible, then God is also guilty of fallacious reasoning!)

I will quote Thomas Paine on this point-


Remarks on Romans IX. 18-21.

Addressed to the Ministers of the Calvinistic Church.

PAUL, in speaking of God, says, "Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will be hardeneth. Thou wilt say, why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will? Nay, but who art thou, O man, that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed Say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus? Hath not the potter power over the clay of the same lump, to make one vessel unto honor and another unto dishonor?"

I shall leave it to Calvinists and Universalists to wrangle about these expressions, and to oppose or corroborate them by other passages from other books of the Old or New Testament. I shall go to the root at once, and say, that the whole passage is presumption and nonsense. Presumption, because it pretends to know the private mind of God: and nonsense, because the cases it states as parallel cases have no parallel in them, and are opposite cases.

The first expression says, "Therefore hath he (God) mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth." As this is ascribing to the attribute of God's power, at the expense of the attribute of his justice, I, as a believer in the justice of God, disbelieve the assertion of Paul. The Predestinarians, of which the loquacious Paul was one, appear to acknowledge but one attribute in God, that of power, which may not improperly be called the Physical attribute. The Deists, in addition to this, believe in his moral attributes, those of justice and goodness.

In the next verses, Paul gets himself into what in vulgar life is called a hobble, and he tries to get out of it by nonsense and sophistry; for having committed himself by saying that "God hath mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth," he felt the difficulty he was in, and the objections that would be made, which he anticipates by saying, "Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he (God) yet find fault? for who hath resisted his will? Nay, but, O man, who art thou, that repliest against God! "This is neither answering the question, nor explaining the case. It is down right quibbling and shuffling off the question, and the proper retort upon him would have been, "Nay, but who art thou, presumptuous Paul, that puttest thyself in God's place!" Paul, however, goes on and says, "Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, why hast thou, made me thus?" Yes, if the thing felt itself hurt, and could speak, it would say it. But as pots and pans have not the faculty of speech, the supposition of such things speaking is putting nonsense in the place of argument, and is too ridiculous even to admit of apology. It shows to what wretched shifts sophistry will resort.

Paul, however, dashes on, and the more he tries to reason the more he involves himself, and the more ridiculous he appears. "Hath not," says he, "the potter power over the clay of the same lump, to make one vessel unto honor and another unto dishonor"? In this metaphor, and a most wretched one it is, Paul makes the potter to represent God; the lump of clay the whole human race; the vessels unto honor those souls "on whom he hath mercy because he will have mercy;" and the vessels unto dishonor, those souls "whom he hardeneth (for damnation) because be will harden them." The metaphor is false in every one of its points, and if it admits of any meaning or conclusion, it is the reverse of what Paul intended and the Calvinists understand.

In the first place a potter doth not, because he cannot, make vessels of different qualities, from the same lump of clay; he cannot make a fine china bowl, intended to ornament a side-board, from the same lump of clay that he makes a coarse pan, intended for a close-stool. The potter selects his clays for different uses, according to their different qualities, and degrees of fineness and goodness.

Paul might as well talk of making gun-flints from the same stick of wood of which the gun-stock is made, as of making china bowls from the same lump of clay of which are made common earthen pots and pans. Paul could not have hit upon a more unfortunate metaphor for his purpose, than this of the potter and the clay; for if any inference is to follow from it, it is that as the potter selects his clay for different kinds of vessels according to the different qualities and degrees of fineness and goodness in the clay, so God selects for future happiness those among mankind who excel in purity and good life, which is the reverse of predestination.

In the second place there is no comparison between the souls of men, and vessels made of clay; and, therefore, to put one to represent the other is a false position. The vessels, or the clay they are made from, are insensible of honor or dishonor. They neither suffer nor enjoy. The clay is not punished that serves the purpose of a close-stool, nor is the finer sort rendered happy that is made up into a punch-bowl. The potter violates no principle of justice in the different uses to which he puts his different clays; for he selects as an artist, not as a moral judge; and the materials he works upon know nothing, and feel nothing, of his mercy or his wrath. Mercy or wrath would make a potter appear ridiculous, when bestowed upon his clay. He might kick some of his pots to pieces.

But the case is quite different with man, either in this world or the next. He is a being sensible of misery as well as of happiness, and therefore Paul argues like an unfeeling idiot, when he compares man to clay on a potter's wheel, or to vessels made therefrom: and with respect to God, it is an offence to his attributes of justice, goodness, and wisdom, to suppose that he would treat the choicest work of creation like inanimate and insensible clay. If Paul believed that God made man after his own image, he dishonours it by making that image and a brick-bat to be alike.

The absurd and impious doctrine of predestination, a doctrine destructive of morals, would never have been thought of had it not been for some stupid passages in the Bible, which priestcraft at first, and ignorance since, have imposed upon mankind as revelation. Nonsense ought to be treated as nonsense, wherever it be found; and had this been done in the rational manner it ought to be done, instead of intimating and mincing the matter, as has been too much the case, the nonsense and false doctrine of the Bible, with all the aid that priestcraft can give, could never have stood their ground against the divine reason that God has given to man.

http://www.infidels.org/library/histori ... ation.html
 
This stuff doesn't answer the question, not as far as I can see

It was only intended to make you think it through a little bit differently. I believe that you implied that the scripture you quoted proved that man had a free will choice. I do not believe that it does.

Dave
 
Paul has committed a blatant fallacy with that argument. (And if God inspired that part of the Bible, then God is also guilty of fallacious reasoning!)

Human wisdom will get you nowhere. At some point in time you'll need to put your faith in something plainly stated in scripture.

I shall go to the root at once, and say, that the whole passage is presumption and nonsense. Presumption, because it pretends to know the private mind of God: and nonsense, because the cases it states as parallel cases have no parallel in them, and are opposite cases.

Actually, it was not Paul who was being presumptuous, but the people he was writing to.

The first expression says, "Therefore hath he (God) mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth." As this is ascribing to the attribute of God's power, at the expense of the attribute of his justice, I, as a believer in the justice of God, disbelieve the assertion of Paul.

This is a quote from Exodus 33:19. Should we disbelieve Moses also?

In the next verses, Paul gets himself into what in vulgar life is called a hobble, and he tries to get out of it by nonsense and sophistry; for having committed himself by saying that "God hath mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth," he felt the difficulty he was in, and the objections that would be made, which he anticipates by saying,

Again, this is a quote from Exodus 33:19.

"Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, why hast thou, made me thus?" Yes, if the thing felt itself hurt, and could speak, it would say it. But as pots and pans have not the faculty of speech, the supposition of such things speaking is putting nonsense in the place of argument, and is too ridiculous even to admit of apology. It shows to what wretched shifts sophistry will resort.

Paul, however, dashes on, and the more he tries to reason the more he involves himself, and the more ridiculous he appears. "Hath not," says he, "the potter power over the clay of the same lump, to make one vessel unto honor and another unto dishonor"? In this metaphor, and a most wretched one it is, Paul makes the potter to represent God; the lump of clay the whole human race; the vessels unto honor those souls "on whom he hath mercy because he will have mercy;" and the vessels unto dishonor, those souls "whom he hardeneth (for damnation) because be will harden them." The metaphor is false in every one of its points, and if it admits of any meaning or conclusion, it is the reverse of what Paul intended and the Calvinists understand.

Isaiah 64:6-8........
 
Dave... said:
This stuff doesn't answer the question, not as far as I can see

It was only intended to make you think it through a little bit differently.

You didn't answer the question, it is as simple as that.

Dave... said:
I believe that you implied that the scripture you quoted proved that man had a free will choice. I do not believe that it does.

What I claimed, is that the words of Jesus clearly assume that we have the ability to turn to God. If you disagree, then please support that claim with an explanation.
 
Dave... said:
Human wisdom will get you nowhere. At some point in time you'll need to put your faith in something plainly stated in scripture.


It is strange that you would say this. According to you, I have no ability to have faith in scripture!
 
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