Mungo
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- Oct 21, 2019
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Although it's true that words have multiple meanings what does that have to do with this? Who else could Jesus possibly have been referring to? Darth Vader?
It's not who Jesus was addressing it is what he meant by his word which we translate as 'call'.
A Greek Othodox priest, who is also a Greek translator (so he rally know what he is talking about) says the Greek for Mt 23:9 can be literally translated as:
"And father no summon of you on the earth one for is the father of you (pl.) who is in the heavens.
The aorist active verb καλέσητε in Matthew 23.9 means to call forth, invite, to summon, and is in the second person aorist active subjunctive plural form. It does not mean to “call” in the sense of addressing someone by a title such as apostle, father, mother, brother, lord, etc. (ὠνόμασεν for example as in Mark 3.14, Luke 6.13, 1 Cor. 5.11, 2 Timothy 2.19, Rom 15.20), but “to call” in the sense of to summon, bid, invite, call forth, invoke (καλέσητε)."
The same Greek word is translated "invite" in Mt 22:9 (RSV0 or bid (KJV).