JohnMuise said:
I never said they had kids at 1000 years old (considering no one lived that long, Methuselah i believe was the oldest human) Now instead of twisting scripture your twisting my words.
You are in denial. Otherwise, why would you write this:
"...Lets say that pre flood the people lived to an average of 1000 and people post flood live to an average of 100..."
in an attempt to show me about how long men live so as to procreate...?
As usual, you take the literal "1000" years as some sort of "gospel". I suppose when you write "200, 300, 700", that means no one in your mind lived to 201, 304 or 721 years old? They only lived to either 200, 300 or 700 years old in your example...
Please. Such bickering over the sense is pointless. We know what you meant. Your idea is that man lived to such an old age, as Adam to 930,
for the point of procreating all the way to his death.
I said that the age of Adam means nothing about how fertile he was - and you jumped on me with your usual attacks about how I twist Scriptures and so forth...
JohnMuise said:
francisdesales said:
All we have is that Adam was 130 years old when he beget Seth. Nothing mentioned about children after Seth. Only your fertile imagination has the Bible insinuate that Adam and Eve continued to have children at their 200th and beyond...
Its called logical deduction, the Bible does not go in to great detail about Adams and Eves life.
No, it's called illogical presumption, since the Bible does not point out that ANYONE gave birth beyond their 130th birthday. We call this "eigesis", inventing stuff and then twisting Scriptures to say something it just doesn't say.
JohnMuise said:
No its scriptural. Its not my fault if you throw it aside.
Where does the bible say that the flood was "GLOBAL"? Perhaps it was, but the BIBLE does not make that statement clearly. The "earth", to the author of Scriptures, consisted of a very small part of the actual earth. The term can be refering to a local event that was destructive only where he was familiar with.
JohnMuise said:
It does not need to, again through the process of logical deduction we can assume they had kids after 200 years of age.
:biglol
"It doesn't need to. I can make up stuff because I want to..."
Listen, if the Bible doesn't mention ANYWHERE that a woman gave birth while she was older than 130 years old (presuming Eve was only slightly younger than Adam - we don't know WHEN God created Eve), why do you pretend to make "logical deductions"? Based on WHAT evidence?
Do we have ANY evidence, either Scriptural or outside of Scriptures in the historical annals of mankind that women give or gave birth to a child while they were older than 130 years old?
Sorry, you are NOT making 'logical deductions' because there is absolutely no support, even implicitly, in the Bible about such events... Nor has man experienced such a thing. It is simply based upon a FALSE presumption.
JohnMuise said:
How do you come about this? If you lived to nearly 1000 years 100 is young, if you live to nearly 100 then 100 is old and 10 becomes young.
One hundred is not young to humans, nor to the reproductive organs of women. Because a woman "lived" to several hundred years old doesn't mean her body did not age appropriately. Where does the bible tell us that God changed man's entire anatomy and physiology after the flood?
It appears more likely that this aging thing is a literary device, just as numerous other cultures of ancient times used it.
JohnMuise said:
francisdesales said:
Rather than your math - which is faulty for a reason I will soon explain, let's say its more likely that men had many wives and were able to copulate with many more females then when it became unlawful to have many wives.
That is a plausible possibility.
That is much more likely than your option of a 500 year old woman having sex and giving birth, for heaven's sake... ;)
And naturally, the Bible never says that a woman anywhere near that age gave birth... Let's not forget that obvious statement...
JohnMuise said:
So because the Bible does not talk about everyone else that means that only a select few lived to nearly 1000? :bigfrown
Only a few people are mentioned.
It doesn't say MEN lived that long. It only names a few of the patriarchs, Noah, Enoch, Adam, etc... Don't jump to conclusions.
JohnMuise said:
Yes, the Egyptians did that as well with there God-kings, but the Bible is supposed to be accurate and reliable, it would seem (unsurprisingly) that you are trying to compare the Bible with other non Godly accounts.
The Bible IS accurate, reliable and inerrant. But that doesn't mean that the author INTENDS on saying that men LITERALLY lived to that age. In his mind, he is using a device similar to other cultures and for the same reason. It is accurate, reliable and inerrant on what the AUTHOR
INTENDS to write, not what you WANT to read.
What is inerrant is the intent of God, not your interpretation.
When Jesus spoke in parables, did he have an actual man in mind or was he telling a story for illustrative purposes? Stories do not have to be historically accurate to be accurate for the AUTHOR'S purpose.
For example, if I am writing a cartoon sketch, is it my intent that I believe that there are talking dogs or am I trying to teach a more metaphorical meaning? ALL truth does not need to be told literally. But we have already discussed this and I am probably not going to get through this time, either.
JohnMuise said:
Where does it say ALL men lived to a ripe old age of just shy of 1000 years? Genesis 5 doesn't mention that. It lists SEVERAL men for the purpose of speaking of the blessings received by the ancient patriarchs.
JohnMuise said:
francisdesales said:
People had lots of children during their child-bearing years. There is no need to invent some crazy idea about people living to 1000 years old while having kids the entire time...
Again i never said the entire time.
Missing the point again. Your idea is that people have children at up to 1000 years old. Thus, the POSSIBILITY that people can have children during the entire time, their entire life. Seems you arguments are getting pretty desperate to take this tact... Where do we find this idea in Scriptures? Nowhere.
JohnMuise said:
francisdesales said:
Nor is there any need for inventing some crazy story that the Patriarchs sailed to North America to populate this part of the world before the Spanish landed in the New World...
Where the heck did you draw this from :o
Do a little thinking. The Mormons, like you, take the literal interpretation of this part of Scripture. It follows that SOMEONE had to populate North America BEFORE the Spaniards came in force and it had to come from the Middle East. Thus, the Mormons discuss a theory of the Patriarchs sailing to America long time ago. At least they address it with their fanciful inventions. You have painted yourself into a corner and don't even realize it. Where DID the American Indians come from, then?
JohnMuise said:
The Bible is fine as is we don't need some guru to interpret it for us.
Scriptures say that incorrect interpretations can lead to "destruction". Maybe you might consider looking somewhere else to get your information, before you are "destroyed".
JohnMuise said:
Anyhow, i am reporting this thread seeing at it polluted with garbage already...what a shame.
You brought up the silly notion that people over 200 years old were populating the world and talked about how I twist Scriptures because you don't get it, not me...
Regards