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"God Blood"?

Yes.
Personally, I don't feel confused. There has apparently been some misguided teaching going on for some time that I had never come across.
I am bothered by the fact it is taught despite not having a sound scriptural basis.
I am bothered by the very faulty medical science that was used to explain it from a "scientific" perspective.
 
Maybe Gods blood and Christs blood are special because they contain the Holy Spirit. Was Christ ever without the Holy Spirit ? No , not even as a man . The life is in the blood. What does the Holy Spirit bring ? Life . If so you and I have special God blood in us also because we are followers of Christ and adopted sons and daughters of Father God and bearers of the Holy Spirit . :whirl
 
I have never personally considered that Christ's blood was anything but human blood, albeit, without sin as we say of His flesh.
I would think the idea of Him having "God blood" contradicts Him being fully God and fully man. His humanness is just that, fully man. He isn't a hybrid.
Yes I agree. Jesus, since He was born of a virgin and the Holy Spirit, a human mother because He had to take on our humanity, but no human father so He was not born with the seed of sin, met the necessary requirements to pay for the sins of others. The perfect sacrifice had to "be tempted just as we are, yet without sin." He had to face all the temptations we do and yet remain holy. It is His shed blood that is the blood of the Covenant. His perfect sinless life was as necessary as for our salvation as is His death and resurrection.
 
I would have to say the concept of God's blood would be metaphorical, not physical. When He became a man, He took on the physical attributes of a human, including actual blood pumping through the vessels of His earthly body. It has to be referring to how Jesus was part of God in the spiritual sense, as God is a spirit. He has no physical form that we could understand.
i agree with this in my words it was physical but spiritual also the Blood cleanses us spiritually. had we been at the crucifixion and managed to smear his physical blood on us. it would have done no God.
 
All Blood belongs to God because ALL LIFE comes from God. Life Blood, foaming blood of the grape, all have to do with blood. All belongs to God.
So to say that Jesus had God's Blood in him isn't wrong...but it isn't exactly accurate either. Jesus had normal Blood within him. It wasn't extraordinary in any respect.

Now...the flow of blood for the remission of sins.
In Hebrews it is seen where Jesus has walked the "Blood Path" as his garment is spattered with blood from walking it.

This is a reference to the Covenant with God made by God but arranged by Abraham in Genesis. It is the reason for the sacrificial system.

When Abraham split all these animals and let their blood flow it was into a little valley that the blood flowed from these animals. The maker of the covenant was to walk the blood path and make a vow. Abraham assumed that God wanted him to walk the blood path and was horrified when God walked it. (Smoking Firepot)
Basically the vow was that the contract could end when the person walking the blood path was killed and their blood was spilled. This happened on the Cross.
Now when people sacrificed the animals the blood was brought to the Altar and God would see the flow of blood and remember his Covenant with Abraham. The guilty party would ask God "To please not to forget his promise to Abraham because they were guilty of sinning".
The contract with Abraham is at an end. Such ends the covenant of the Ten Commandments...because it was an addendum for Abraham's Children. The Jews, as a race of people, have one dispensation left of never being wiped out as a race. That is one of two dispensations left to them that Jesus pronounced in the Olivet Discourse. (the other is curse of blindness) The contract of health and wealth for following the Law is at an end. God's chosen people is over for them as a race. The system of Animal sacrifices is over. God's blood...which is Jesus' innocent blood (all animal sacrifices had to be of perfect animals) is definitely more valuable for the remission of sins.

Blood also was used to institute other covenants. The Covenant of the Ten Commandments was instituted with blood. The Temple foundation was consecrated with the blood of a red (blemish free) heifer. A slave who wished to remain in a family that owned him was done by an awl through the slave's ear into the door post. (of course this included blood and flesh)

When Cain killed Abel, Cain had "forced the earth to drink Abel's blood". The Earth is holy and didn't want to drink what did not belong to it. All blood belongs to God.
A woman's monthly cycle made her unclean because her blood is leaking out. Touching it (which she can't avoid) makes her "unclean" because she is touching what does not belong to her".

All blood belongs to God. Those creatures which did not have blood in them were considered unclean to begin with. You didn't handle them or touch them or have anything to do with them.
 
"Without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sin." Interesting that the blood of sacrificial animals did not remove sin guilt but only covered it temporarily. Therefore had to be repeated yearly. Only the blood of Jesus is sufficient to remove sin guilt because His righteousness is imputed to us. This is all in Hebrews as I'm sure you know. One of my favorite books in the Bible because it explains a lot of the Old Testament, ties the two together, shows us what was being pointed to.

Yes there are many covenants in the OT. The covenant with Abraham was a covenant of promise, a unilateral covenant by God as you illustrated, by faith. It was fulfilled in Jesus. Many of the covenants were conditional. I will do this if you do that which is what God made with the nation of Israel. It was a land covenant. They didn't keep their end of the bargain, lost the land, at times, temporarily. God's promise to David still stands, also fulfilled in Christ.
 
Jesus is the Son of God (God's DNA/blood-father's side) and he is the Son of Man (Human DNA/blood-mother's side)

1 John 4:2-3 This is how you can recognize the Spirit of God: Every spirit that acknowledges that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is from God, but every spirit that does not acknowledge Jesus is not from God. This is the spirit of the antichrist, which you heard is coming and even now is already in the world.

This is how I know if someone has the right spirit. They acknowledge both the divinity of Jesus and the human(flesh) side of him too.
 
Acts 20:28 is sometimes rendered - “... to shepherd [“feed” in some translations] the church of God which He purchased with His own blood.” - NASB

But there are 2 major uncertainties about this translation of Acts 20:28.

First, even some Bibles translate this verse, “the church of the Lord.” - NEB; REB; ASV; Moffatt. "to feed the church of the Lord which he purchased with his own blood." - ASV.

The popular The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, p. 838, Vol. 2, Zondervan Publ., 1986, also uses this translation for Acts 20:28: “to feed the church of the Lord”!

And the respected, scholarly work, A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, p. 480, United Bible Societies, 1971, explains about this first uncertainty concerning the translation of Acts 20:28. It admits that there is “considerable degree of doubt” about the two different renderings. It states that “The external evidence is singularly balanced between ‘church of God’ and ‘church of the Lord.’”

Second, some Bibles render this verse, “to care for the church of God which he obtained with the blood of his own Son.” - RSV, 1971 ed.; NRSV; NJB; CEB; CJB; GNT; LEB; MOUNCE; NCV; NET).

The New Testament Greek words tou idiou follow “through the blood” in this scripture. This could be translated as “through [by means of] the blood of his own.” A singular noun may be understood to follow “his own.” This could be referring to God’s “closest relation,” his only-begotten Son.

Noted scholar J. H. Moulton says about this:

“something should be said about the use of [ho idios, which includes tou idiou] without a noun expressed. This occurs in Jn 1:11, 13:1; Ac 4:23, 24:23. In the papyri we find the singular used thus as a term of endearment to near relations .... In Expos. vi. iii. 277 I ventured to cite this as a possible encouragement to those (including B. Weiss) who would translate Acts 20:28 ‘the blood of one who was his own.’” - A Grammar of New Testament Greek, Vol. 1 (Prolegomena), 1930 ed., p. 90.

New Testament scholars Westcott and Hort present an alternate reason for a similar rendering:

“it is by no means impossible that YIOY [huiou, or ‘of the Son’] dropped out [was inadvertently left out during copying] after TOYIDIOY [tou idiou, or ‘of his own’] at some very early transcription affecting all existing documents. Its insertion [restoration] leaves the whole passage free from difficulty of any kind.” - The New Testament in the Original Greek, Vol. 2, pp. 99, 100 of the Appendix.

And A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, p. 481, tells us:

“Instead of the usual meaning of dia tou haimatos tou idiou [‘through the blood of the own’], it is possible that the writer of Acts intended his readers to understand the expression to mean ‘with the blood of his Own.’ (It is not necessary to suppose, with Hort, that huiou may have dropped out after tou idiou, though palaeographically such an omission would have been easy.) This absolute use of ho idios is found in Greek papyri as a term of endearment referring to near relatives. It is possible, therefore, that ‘his Own’ (ho idios) was a title which early Christians gave to Jesus, comparable to ‘the Beloved’.”

Therefore, we can see that a rendering similar to RSV’s “the church of God which he obtained with the blood of his own son [or ‘beloved’]” is an honest rendering.

Although the UBS Committee didn’t actually commit itself one way or another on this rendering of tou idiou at Acts 20:28, it did mention that “some have thought [it] to be a slight probability that tou idiou is used here as the equivalent of tou idiou huiou [‘his own Son’].” - p. 481. Obviously this includes those scholars who translated the Revised Standard Version (1971 ed.) and Today’s English Version.

The The NIV Study Bible states in a footnote for Acts 20:28:

"his own blood. Lit. 'the blood of his own one,' a term of endearment (such as 'his own dear one,' referring to his own Son)." - NIVSB, Zondervan, 1985.
 
Jesus was fully man and fully God. Which means his blood is and was God blood. He isnt much different in his resurrected body. His resurrection is a reformed and revised version of his body.
The first flesh and blood body was Adam. A body of the dust of the earth. The body conceived in Mary by the HS would have been in that order. There is no God blood. God is Spirit.

The Jesus who was, His spirit, was in the tent of the body God prepared for Him.
"Father into your hands I commit my spirit"

Therefore, when Christ came into the world, he said: "Sacrifice and offering you did not desire, but a body you prepared for me;
 
In a bible study this past weekend we were discussing the blood of Christ. The pastor was leading and stated that Christ's blood was "God Blood" not human blood. I had never heard that idea in my 41 years as a believer.
I brought it up with my wife who hadn't heard of that either.
The pastor is a KJV man. I did some googling and it seems much of this ideal comes from Acts 20:28

"Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood."

Since Jesus isn't named in this verse the proponents of this view the "he" and "his" as God, in effect "God has purchased with His own blood.

Advocates of "God blood" say human blood couldn't atone for our sins.

What say you all?
Did Jesus have human or "God blood " ?

Jesus had to be legally a man, a literal descendant of Adam.

Jesus mainly referred to Himself as the Son of man.


His blood is human blood.


JLB
 
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