Because the passage alone makes it clear that he wasn't created. To introduce, as the NWT has done, words which change the meaning of passage to say that Jesus was created, is presumption. If one reads that passage, as it is, apart from any other text, it clearly states that Jesus created all things, and that means everything. Again I will point out that this is in complete agreement with John 1:3.Mohrb said:What specifically makes you so sure that the error isn't the presumption that Jesus wasn't created. (see the post directly above this one)Free said:Ah, but the error is the presumption that Jesus was created.
Of course, no passage stands alone and the rest of Scripture must be taken into consideration but that does not mean it is okay to add words which change the meaning of a given passage. That passage gives other passages meaning just as other passages also give it meaning.
I don't follow what your point is here.Mohrb said:We both agree that Jesus isn't a part of what Jesus created and that Jesus played some part in the creation of all things other than himself and God. I believe it was because the eternal God created Jesus first. You believe it's because they're both eternal. If you disagree with that translation so much, feel free to prefer another translation. I don't see a conversation about "you not approving of a specific translation of a specific verse" being any more productive.Free said:The addition of "other" completely changes the meaning of what Paul is saying and puts this passage in tension with John 1:1-3.
But again, you are reading into the text that he was created and not letting the text first speak for itself. Verse 3 begins by stating "All things came into existence through him." We see here, as in Col 1, that "all things" have come into existence through him. This makes it clear that "apart from him" is meaning "without him."Mohrb said:There are two other possible consideration. "Apart from him" could be referring to "with the exception of his creation." Or, more likely (IMO), that his creation obviously wasn't "apart" from himself (considering it was the creation of him).John 1:1-3, 1 In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. 2 This one was in [the] beginning with God. 3 All things came into existence through him, and apart from him not even one thing came into existence.
Indeed, if it were to mean "with the exception of his creation," this puts the first half of the verse in tension with the second half. Not to mention one would have to ignore the Greek of the first two verses.
"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God"--It is very important to note that "was" is the Greek en, and denotes absolute existence, that is, continuous existence in the past. This alone does away with "the Word was a god" since "a god" is not The God and implies a glorified, created being of some sort. However, since the Word always has been, he cannot have been some mere creature since, I'm sure you would agree, eternal preexistence can only be said of God alone.
Contrast that with verse 3 and 14a--"3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made" and "14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us." In both instances, "made" is the Greek egeneto, which means "came into being" and refers to a point of origin.
No, the Greek supports the rendering "the Word was God"--even apart from verse 3, but verse 3 does indeed support such a rendering--but that is not all the Greek states.Mohrb said:You're supporting a grammatically incorrect translation of John 1:1 based on an arbitrary assumption about John 1:3... when there's another perfectly simple and logical explanation of John 1:3 that happens to agree with the grammatically correct translation of John 1:1 (and the word was a god).Free said:So, since the Word must have always existed, it completely supports verse 1, according to correct translations which state that "the Word was God." Only God has existed for eternity past.
It is very important to note that John is making a distinction between the Word and God; he is showing us who the Word is, not who God is. I'm assuming that you're appealing to the fact that there is no article before theos. That it appears anarthrously in no way means that it should be translated as "a god," as the following reasons show:
1. If both God and the Word had an article, "the Word was God" would be the same as "God was the Word," but clearly that is not the case.
2. If neither God nor the Word had an article, "God" and "Word" would be interchangeable, equating all of God with all of the Word, but that is clearly not the case either.
3. There are 282 other instances of theos appearing anarthrously and I can all but guarantee that all of them are translated as "God" in the NWT. This includes John 1:6, 12, 13, and 18. So then one is left scratching their head as to why this single instance in John 1:1 is translated as "a god."
No, I must have missed them if you made a point of them. The Greek for "only-begotten," monogenes, can mean "unique" or "one of a kind," and does not necessarily convey any idea of begetting in the sense of being born or created.Mohrb said:You still haven't responded to the fact that Jesus is the only-(1)begotten (2)son of God and first(3)born (4)of creation. There a reason you're avoiding these points?
As to "first born," I suggest you look at its usage through all of Scripture. Again, it can mean the first born son, but it can also mean more than that. In this case it is a title which speaks of Christ's sovereignty and means that Jesus is preeminent over all creation. It actually speaks to his eternal preexistence which is then supported by the verses immediately following which say that he created "all things."
I believe I have just shown you.Mohrb said:Where? :nagFree said:The Bible is clear that Jesus is God Incarnate, God in human flesh and does not reveal more than this. That is all we can say--Jesus is the God-man.