Because it doesn't say he was justified by his faith, or by what he did, there in Genesis 12:4.
Does it SAY anywhere in Scripture that we are "justified by faith all by itself, alone"? No, but you
infer it. Does it SAY "works" means "all things done"? No, but you believe it's
implied. What about Cornelius? Did he and his household have faith in Christ? The Bible doesn't SAY, but we
both believe he did because it's
inferred. We all believe many things that are inferred or implied, in fact, I would say that's how we arrive at most doctrinal truth. So why do you hold Abraham's justification process to a higher level of proof than you do other truths?
But it does say that he was justified by his faith in Genesis 15:6. And by the nature of what it means to be justified, it is both unnecessary and impossible to be re-justified, so we know this is not another justification occurring there, but his one and only justification (as in being 'made' righteous, not 'shown' to be righteous which occurs over and over).
Well, I don't accept this premise because this is what we are discussing. My example of Abraham in Gen. 12 is my "proof" that the "nature" of justification is ongoing.
We've already talked about the 'impossible' part of re-justification. We're not in disagreement that it takes a conscious, willing decision to turn your back on the forgiveness of Christ to come to the point where you lose your justification. Hebrews 10:26-31 is not talking about the weak or ignorant believer who stumbles, but who clings tenaciously to the grace of God. That passage is talking about the willful, arrogant rejecter of the grace they have received in Christ. So we don't need to discuss this reason of the two reasons why re-justification can't occur.
OK, as long as you mean that if a justified person apostatizes (makes "a conscious, willing decision to turn your back on the forgiveness of Christ") then he can't (more accurately won't) come back, and that apostasy is the only sin that carries this caveat.
Besides, it would be hard to believe and defend any kind of argument that kind of falling away happened to Abraham between Genesis 12 and Genesis 15, and between Genesis 15 and Genesis 22.
No, it didn't. But Abraham obviously sinned and broke communion with God, so had to be justified again. Disobedience causes us to lose our initial justification, but we can regain it through repentance. He certainly didn't apostatize and harden his heart against God, or he wouldn't be able to repent. That, we agree on.
What we need to talk about is re-justification being unnecessary for the believing, but weak or ignorant believer who fails. This is the reason that Abraham was not being re-justified in Genesis 15. That simply isn't necessary once a person is justified. They remain justified as long as they keep believing (Don't misunderstand, I know full well the disbelieving that strips you of your justification is not what we are talking about here. We are in agreement about this). So this can't be a re-justification occurring in Genesis 15:6.
Again, this is your side of our disagreement. My claim, backed up by the story of Abraham, proves that it is necessary for a person to be re-justified throughout life, and that when we sin, this disobedience doesn't only effect our salvation (which we both believe), but our standing with God, our justification. Where we disagree is that you believe it's only "disbelieving (apostatizing?) that strips you of your justification" and, because of this, it can not be regained. I believe that all disobedience
can strip you of your justification but that it depends on the severity of the sins. Because it's sin and not flat out rejection of Christ that "strips us", it can be regained and even strengthened.
Here is more food for thought on Abraham.
"
Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen. For by it the elders obtained a good report." (Heb. 11:2-3 KJV)
Here, the author groups together all the men he is about to mention as "the elders", and they are all obtaining the same "good report". I don't think this can be denied. Here is verse 3 in the RSV:
"
For by it the men of old received divine approval."
They are all obtaining the same "divine approval". Next verse:
"
By faith Abel offered unto God a more excellent sacrifice than Cain, by which he obtained witness that he was righteous, God testifying of his gifts: and by it he being dead yet speaketh." (Heb. 11:4 KJV)
In the RSV:
"By faith Abel offered to God a more acceptable sacrifice than Cain, through which he received approval as righteous, God bearing witness by accepting his gifts; he died, but through his faith he is still speaking."
We can infer, that the "good report" or the "divine approval", that ALL "the elders" or "men of old" received, is
righteousness. That's what the author means by "divine approval", and all of them "received" it. I don't think this can be denied either.
This is the verse right before "By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out..."
"
By faith Noah, being warned of God of things not seen as yet, moved with fear, prepared an ark to the saving of his house; by the which he condemned the world, and became heir of the righteousness which is by faith." (Heb 11:8 KJV)
In the RSV:
"
By faith Noah, being warned by God concerning events as yet unseen, took heed and constructed an ark for the saving of his household; by this he condemned the world and became an heir of the righteousness which comes by faith."
Noah is "an heir of righteousness" so righteousness is being passed on, so to speak, through faith to all the "men of old". The next verse talks about Abraham. I think it would be a ridiculous assumption (or inference) to say that Noah was an "heir of righteousness which is by faith" when he "prepared an ark", but Abraham was not when he "went out...".
It's the very next verse. I believe all the men and women mentioned in Heb. 11 were justified by faith. That's the point of Heb. 11.