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Ignoring Romans 2: An Error of Exegisis

ivdavid said:
Drew,

When you say that we are presently justified by faith and that this faith is needed to receive the Holy Spirit, what exactly does 'faith' mean to you here?
I am saying, to use Paul's words from Romans 10, That if you confess with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved." Remember my analogy about the doctor? Same idea - I am really just talking about "basic trusting belief" here. (fds - if you are reading this, please bear with me, I can explain later if this disturbs you).

ivdavid said:
What does Jesus' blood justify?
I am not sure what this question means. I certainly do believe that Jesus' shed blood is the key thing - it is the act that makes future salvation possible and, in fact, ensures it for the person who places faith in Jesus in the present (unless they turn their back on God). There is nothing in anything I have posted that can, legitimately anyway, be taken as denying the central role of the cross.

ivdavid said:
What happens during regeneration?
As Paul says in Romans 8, we become conformed to the image of Jesus.

ivdavid said:
What was the purpose of the Law? Are we bound to any defined law now?
As controversial as this may sound, I believe that the purpose of the Law was to draw sin together into one place - national Israel - so that it (sin) could then be focused on her representative Messiah and then condemned on the cross. We can get into the details if you like. Remember, the Law was only ever for the Jews. Paul tells us that the Law has now been abolished. The only law we are now bound to is the law of the Spirit.
 
ivdavid said:
What is salvation? What are we being saved from?
Salvation is being saved or rescued from death. So the person who is "saved" gets eternal life.

ivdavid said:
According to your belief, since all our good works are wrought by the Holy Spirit, then all who have the Spirit will be saved, right?
Yes, most definitely.
 
ivdavid said:
I'd like you to clarify these so I may be able to understand your beliefs better.
As some others will know, I have been substantially influenced by English theologian NT Wright. If you are interested in the real details about this viewpoint, you can read some of his material. This is not me avoiding your questions - I am happy to expatiate at length - but if you want material from a recognized scholarly source, you may wish to read some of his stuff.
 
Drew,

thanks for replying to all my questions....I can't get any of Wright's works anytime soon. So you'll have to put up with me some more time. And please don't mind all my questions - I'm sincerely trying to get to the root of the problem.

Drew said:
I am saying, to use Paul's words from Romans 10, That if you confess with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved." Remember my analogy about the doctor? Same idea - I am really just talking about "basic trusting belief" here.
So, what exactly is this "trusting belief"? I mean, what is the objective of God in stressing that only those who believe that Jesus rose from the dead will be saved? Why not set something else as a parameter for salvation, like perhaps the partition of the red sea? Why not that and why this alone? What's so important for us in Jesus' resurrection that our salvation depends on taking it to heart and not just our minds?
(I'm assuming this is the belief that is referred to in John 3:16 and other parts of the NT concerning belief in Christ.)


Drew said:
ivdavid said:
What does Jesus' blood justify?
I am not sure what this question means. I certainly do believe that Jesus' shed blood is the key thing - it is the act that makes future salvation possible and, in fact, ensures it for the person who places faith in Jesus in the present (unless they turn their back on God). There is nothing in anything I have posted that can, legitimately anyway, be taken as denying the central role of the cross.
Of course, I'm not implying that you're denying the central role of the cross. But what exactly is the central role of the cross with respect to us? How does it/should it affect us? Is this in any way related to the previous question on the importance of Jesus' resurrection? If so, how does belief in Jesus' death and resurrection affect us directly? What is the motive behind it?

(I'm just wording it in different ways to ask why Jesus had to come here in the flesh, die on the cross and rise again to be glorified for eternity.)

Drew said:
ivdavid said:
What happens during regeneration?
As Paul says in Romans 8, we become conformed to the image of Jesus.
Could you elaborate on how this conformation take place - ie can I assume that this is where there is the change of heart that Ezekiel 36:26 talks about and where we become the new creatures as mentioned in 2Corinthians 5:17 ?
 
Drew said:
mondar said:
MM, can I recommend you scroll back to the exegesis I posted of Romans 2. I think you will agree with what I said. You are correct, justification is a once and for all declaration that the believing sinner is just on the basis of Christs atonement.
Not according to Paul it isn't:

Yeah it is.

Drew said:
for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified

A clear and unambiguous statement that there is at least some sense in which justification is a future event.

Such an interpretation completely misses the entire context.

Rom 2:12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without the law: and as many as have sinned under the law shall be judged by the law;
Rom 2:13 for not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified:

Your interpretation has the awkward idea that those who sin without the law are not Jews, and that the law they do not sin under is not the Mosaic Law. Obviously they are Jews, and verse 13 is obviously talking about the Mosiac Law. This is also backed up by the context a few verses later....

Rom 2:18 and knowest his will, and approvest the things that are excellent, being instructed out of the law,
Rom 2:19 and art confident that thou thyself art a guide of the blind, a light of them that are in darkness,
Rom 2:20 a corrector of the foolish, a teacher of babes, having in the law the form of knowledge and of the truth;
Rom 2:21 thou therefore that teachest another, teachest thou not thyself? thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal?
Rom 2:22 thou that sayest a man should not commit adultery, dost thou commit adultery? thou that abhorrest idols, dost thou rob temples?
Rom 2:23 thou who gloriest in the law, through thy transgression of the law dishonorest thou God?


The Law here can be no other then the Mosaic Law. It even names 2 of the 10 commandments in the decalogue.

Talk more later... maybe...
 
francisdesales said:
glorydaz said:
We are saved by faith that is "alive in love"...true.
BUT, it's the faith of Jesus Christ...not ours.

Faith "of" Jesus Christ? Jesus' faith in what saves us? Faith is something that we believe and is unseen. What is "unseen" to God? What faith did He have? "Faith" that the Father would raise Him? But elsewhere, JESUS is the power that raises Himself. I'm not too sure about this.

Secondly, if the faith of Jesus saves, than why isn't everyone saved? If justification is dependent upon Jesus without consideration of the individual's own faith received from God, then wouldn't every man be saved?

Perhaps it is the faulty KJV.

Go to Blue Letter bible and compare the KJV to every other translation (to include the NKJV). Look at Gal 2:16. All of them are interpreted "IN" Jesus, not "OF" Jesus... Perhaps the old English "of" means "in"? But in the 21st century English, the translation makes more sense to say "IN". Does the Greek demand "of" here?

I'm surprised at you, Joe. These modern translations certainly do like to put man in the driver's seat, don't they? Let's look at Romans 4:16, the exact same construction and the exact same Greek..."Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all." But when these same words are translated 'faith of Christ (pistis christos), some can't bring themselves to translate it correctly. It's only the word "Christ" which causes these modern translators consternation. They all have no problem with the wording the faith 'of' Abraham. In fact, it would not Biblically make sense to say the 'faith in Abraham,' just as it doesn't Biblically make sense to say we are justified by our 'faith in Christ.' Justification cannot come by our faith.


Go to Young's Literal...they keep it as it's written. Whatever you do, don't go to NIV, they change it to faith in Christ every time. It can be faith of Abraham, but it can't be faith of Christ...that should tell you something. If you would like to know why we are justified by the faith of Christ and not our own, I'll be happy to discuss that with you, but right now, I have to take my granddaughter home.
 
Mysteryman said:
You ramble too much for anyone to have an honest conversation with you !

So I suppose you mean to have a dishonest conversation with me? Like how you KNOW what God meant to say in the Bible when all the manuscripts say otherwise???

No thanks, I am beginning to think you are just a troll here...

For the last time, "believes" is a present tense, NOW word. Don't confuse the issue. If one has Christ, NOW, then they don't have to worry. You are upset, I guess, because you are yet again confounded.

Have you even looked at the train wrecks you have left on these threads? You start a line of thought, and then you run it off the road and we don't hear from it again after I or Drew give it a nudge. I am becoming bored pointing out your simple mistakes.

My comments are warranted, because a verb with an "s" ("th" in old English) refers to an action taking place NOW.

AND for those who are aware that we have a relationship with Christ, the present tense idea is in line with this thought. The Bible speaks disparagingly towards the ONCE RIGHTEOUS who have resorted to evil. Who CARES what you did long time ago? No faith NOW, you are not in Christ. Not in Christ, no eternal life...

Mysteryman said:
...The reason I can say this with total confidence, is because we who have Christ in us, were born with Christ in us. This is not something we aquire after we believe. God gave us of the Spirit of his Son in our hearts , crying Abba Father. We didn't earn it, any more than myself being a son of my biological father ! I am a son of God, because God chose to give me the seed Spirit of his Son. I can not believe then receive, but rather I believe because I have already received. So it is past tense !

Now, whose babbling. What does this have to do with present tense verbs??? You are interjecting your OPINION that doesn't explain the verb's present tense.
 
glorydaz said:
I'm surprised at you, Joe. These modern translations certainly do like to put man in the driver's seat, don't they?

GD, I gave you a long list of Translations. Are you saying that ONLY the KJV got it right? I say they got it wrong OR the 16th century useage of "of" is meant to be as our useage of "in".

I was reading the Acts of the Apostles, and a verse I came across seems to bear my point out...

I kept back nothing that was profitable unto you, but have shewed you, and have taught you publickly, and from house to house, Testifying both to the Jews, and also to the Greeks, repentance toward God, and faith toward our Lord Jesus Christ. Acts 20:20-21

The context is Paul's farewell to the elders of Ephesus. Consider, this is a shortened version of the Gospel that he preached. Note, he doesn't say JESUS' Faith, but OUR faith in Jesus Christ. THIS is the KJV, by the way. I do not know why the KJV has "faith of Jesus" in your citation, but every other one I have seen, to include the above, have it this way. And it makes sense.

Consider the Gospels. Does Jesus ever speak about salvation dependent upon HIS faith in God - or is eternal life based upon faith in Who He is and having faith in THAT? Please reconsider...

glorydaz said:
Let's look at Romans 4:16, the exact same construction and the exact same Greek..."Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace; to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all." But when these same words are translated 'faith of Christ (pistis christos),


I dont' know the rules of Greek for the useage of "of" vs "in". However, it doesn't make sense to talk about JESUS' faith, when HE HIMSELF clearly speaks about having faith IN HIM in the Gospels...

glorydaz said:
some can't bring themselves to translate it correctly.


Would that include you? Or are you one of those "KJV ONLY" people? Again, I think you are mistaken, and I think you will agree when you consider Jesus' words to the Apostles. He speaks of OUR faith IN HIM, not HIS FAITH. I don't recall a single verse that speaks about HIS faith that is salvific...

glorydaz said:
It's only the word "Christ" which causes these modern translators consternation. They all have no problem with the wording the faith 'of' Abraham. In fact, it would not Biblically make sense to say the 'faith in Abraham,' just as it doesn't Biblically make sense to say we are justified by our 'faith in Christ.' Justification cannot come by our faith.


Go to Young's Literal...they keep it as it's written. Whatever you do, don't go to NIV, they change it to faith in Christ every time.

They change it because they are more knowledgeable about the sense?

I gave you a list of over 10 translations... What more do you want? Consider the Gospels and what Jesus says, if you still doubt me.

If men are justified ONLY by the faith OF Christ, then every man is justified and going to heaven...


I have explained my reasoning, and I stand by it. They make much more sense then your "KJV" is the only one that got it right...
 
francisdesales said:
I dont' know the rules of Greek for the useage of "of" vs "in". However, it doesn't make sense to talk about JESUS' faith, when HE HIMSELF clearly speaks about having faith IN HIM in the Gospels...

Well, let's really look at this, shall we? Jesus is the "author and finisher" of our faith. Would an imperfect faith justify us before God? What man has a perfect faith? The Greek means...through, by means of, or by...but not in. We have faith in Christ...no doubt, but we also see the faith of Christ (unless you're reading the NIV), but Young's and others manage to translate it correctly. The KJV happens to be correct on this one. They don't do as well on "hell" and "hades" however, so I always check with Young's when I want clarification on that. I read where the older Catholic Bible's had it correct, as well. I'm not sure what translation you use, but if we are justified by our own faith then we are all in a world of hurt. A measure of faith is given to all men...not enough to cleanse us from sin and justify us, however. Then the fruit of the Spirit includes faith once we're saved.

Jesus told Paul....they may recieve forgiveness of sins, and ...are sanctified by faith that is in me. That's faith that is in Him...not faith that is in us.
Acts 26:18 said:
To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.
Why does Paul say this? Was he just careless? He would be extremely redundant were he to be saying all of this is our faith in Christ. He says we believed in Christ, but are justified by the faith of Christ.
Galatians 2:15-16 said:
We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles, Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
Would Paul write...the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe? No, the faith of Jesus Christ is given to those who believe. His faith is given to us. Not only His faithfulness as the Redeemer, but His faith in His work as the Redeemer.
Galatians 3:22 said:
But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.
Here we see again...through the faith of Christ...the righteousness which is of God by faith. Does any man every have a faith righteous enough to forgive sins and justify us before God?
Philippians 3:9 said:
And be found in him, not having mine own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith:
Our faith is "counted" as righteousness because it's His faith that we tap into when we look upon the serpent of brass, or when we touch the rock from which spring living waters. How can any man muster up enough faith to forgive sin and justify us before God. Only the faith of Christ can do that. He was the propitiation for sin. He did what we couldn't. Our faith would never be enough to justify or forgive sin.
Romans 3:3-4 said:
For what if some did not believe? shall their unbelief make the faith of God without effect?
Faith IN Christ unto all and upon all them that believe....does that really make sense to you? That's what the NIV claims. They change every instance where "of Christ" is written, even when it makes no sense.
Rom. 3:22 said:
Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
 
francisdesales said:
I gave you a list of over 10 translations... What more do you want? Consider the Gospels and what Jesus says, if you still doubt me.

If men are justified ONLY by the faith OF Christ, then every man is justified and going to heaven...


I have explained my reasoning, and I stand by it. They make much more sense then your "KJV" is the only one that got it right...

They aren't the only one that got it right...check one of your old Catholic Bibles because they used to have it right, and Young's has it right.

Darby's get most of them right...
Galatians 2:16 - but knowing that a man is not justified on the principle of works of law [nor] but by the faith of Jesus Christ, *we* also have believed on Christ Jesus, that we might be justified on the principle of [the] faith of Christ; and not of works of law; because on the principle of works of law no flesh shall be justified.

Galatians 2:20 - I am crucified with Christ, and no longer live, *I*, but Christ lives in me; but [in] that I now live in flesh, I live by faith, the [faith] of the Son of God, who has loved me and given himself for me.
Wycliffe gets it right...although, I don't know what they're doing with "righteousness". :help
Romans 3:22 -And the rightwiseness of God is by the faith of Jesus Christ into all men and on all men that believe in him; for there is no parting. [Soothly the rightwiseness of God is by the faith of Jesus Christ into all and on all that believe into him; forsooth there is no distinction, or parting.]

Romans 3:26 - to the showing of his rightwiseness in this time, that he be just, and justifying him that is of the faith of Jesus Christ.
I guess our faith in Him gives us boldness and confidence...oh ye of little faith. No wonder we can't see eye to eye on the Word of God. The new translations have robbed the Word of it's truth. :shame
Ephesians 3:11-12 said:
According to the eternal purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord: In whom we have boldness and access with confidence by the faith of him.
And the worst of all...this for the author and finisher of our faith...according to NIV, we live by our faith in the Son of God. I'm really dismayed by what I've just found out. What an assault on the Word of God. :shame
Galatians 2:19-20 said:
For I through the law am dead to the law, that I might live unto God. I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.

We are truly in the last days.........may the Lord have mercy on our souls.
 
francisdesales said:
Mysteryman said:
You ramble too much for anyone to have an honest conversation with you !

So I suppose you mean to have a dishonest conversation with me? Like how you KNOW what God meant to say in the Bible when all the manuscripts say otherwise???

No thanks, I am beginning to think you are just a troll here...

For the last time, "believes" is a present tense, NOW word. Don't confuse the issue. If one has Christ, NOW, then they don't have to worry. You are upset, I guess, because you are yet again confounded.

Have you even looked at the train wrecks you have left on these threads? You start a line of thought, and then you run it off the road and we don't hear from it again after I or Drew give it a nudge. I am becoming bored pointing out your simple mistakes.

My comments are warranted, because a verb with an "s" ("th" in old English) refers to an action taking place NOW.

AND for those who are aware that we have a relationship with Christ, the present tense idea is in line with this thought. The Bible speaks disparagingly towards the ONCE RIGHTEOUS who have resorted to evil. Who CARES what you did long time ago? No faith NOW, you are not in Christ. Not in Christ, no eternal life...

Mysteryman said:
...The reason I can say this with total confidence, is because we who have Christ in us, were born with Christ in us. This is not something we aquire after we believe. God gave us of the Spirit of his Son in our hearts , crying Abba Father. We didn't earn it, any more than myself being a son of my biological father ! I am a son of God, because God chose to give me the seed Spirit of his Son. I can not believe then receive, but rather I believe because I have already received. So it is past tense !

Now, whose babbling. What does this have to do with present tense verbs??? You are interjecting your OPINION that doesn't explain the verb's present tense.


Hi

You need to get off of this idea, that one can loose eternal life. One would never receive eternal life if one commits a sin unto death. However, there are many sins that are not unto death. No matter what sin one commits, they have fallen away from fellowship. That is a given. However , one can be restored back into fellowship by repenting and changing one's ways. Fellowship is one thing, but you suggest that breaking fellowship is going to cause one to loose eternal life. This is just not true !

Since we didn't earn eternal life by our works, then we can't loose that which was not attainable in the first place. Only God through his Son, and the sacrifice made for our sins, and the shed blood of his Son are our sins forgiven. And he will remember them no more, as far as the east is from the west.

There is no more sacrifice for sins, since one sacrifice was sufficent. God told us that not one is righteous, and that every man sins , and falls short of the glory of God.

Faith is believing, and believing is in the present tense. But why I believe is because of the past tense, not the present tense. I can not attain eternal life because I believe. That would make my faith the attainable reason for God to give me eternal life, because of me and my own faith. That would mean, that God would have to obey me, rather than it being a free gift. It would mean that God must listen to me, instead of me listening to him. And anyone should see clearly, that what I say I believe is secondary to what God reveals to me, that eternal life is a free gift. It had a great cost. It was an act of Love, both of the Father and of the Son. Remember, God told us the he gave of his Son, because he loved the world. The first act of love came from the Father, not us. Then God chose me from before the foundations of the earth, to be holy and without blame in love in Christ. Again, this was his choice , not mine. I am very thankful for that which he has given me. And it should reflect on how I live my life and how I worship God in Spirit and in truth. I am humbled by his mercy and grace.

If it was because of my own faith, then I could boast . But because it is not of my own faith, then I am humbled.
 
Mysteryman said:
You need to get off of this idea, that one can loose eternal life. One would never receive eternal life if one commits a sin unto death.

The Bible states otherwise. Because you receive the Presence of Eternal Life does not mean you cannot sin - even a sin onto death. We can grieve the Spirit and commit sins onto death. IF we commit such sins, this is evidence that the Spirit of God has LEFT us.

Mysteryman said:
However, there are many sins that are not unto death. No matter what sin one commits, they have fallen away from fellowship. That is a given.

I disagree. All sins do not mean we fall away from fellowship.

Mysteryman said:
However , one can be restored back into fellowship by repenting and changing one's ways. Fellowship is one thing, but you suggest that breaking fellowship is going to cause one to loose eternal life. This is just not true !

It is.

Mysteryman said:
Since we didn't earn eternal life by our works, then we can't loose that which was not attainable in the first place.

Did the Jews earn the opportunity to be freed from Egyptian slavery? Did the vast majority of Jews die in the desert because of what they did? Paul uses this very same point of history in 1 Cor 10 to disprove your non-biblical ideas...

Mysteryman said:
Only God through his Son, and the sacrifice made for our sins, and the shed blood of his Son are our sins forgiven. And he will remember them no more, as far as the east is from the west.

There is no more sacrifice for sins, since one sacrifice was sufficent. God told us that not one is righteous, and that every man sins , and falls short of the glory of God.

I don't recall saying otherwise. However, once our sins are forgiven, we can sin again, as you state. Sins onto death means what?

Mysteryman said:
Faith is believing, and believing is in the present tense. But why I believe is because of the past tense, not the present tense...

The present tense status is what is important. Does one STILL believe. The Jews who left Egypt believed, but they ALL died, except two, because of DISBELIEF. DIED! That is not "being saved". A person's belief is shown by their good deeds of love in Christ, not their fine talk.
 
glorydaz said:
francisdesales said:
I dont' know the rules of Greek for the useage of "of" vs "in". However, it doesn't make sense to talk about JESUS' faith, when HE HIMSELF clearly speaks about having faith IN HIM in the Gospels...

Well, let's really look at this, shall we? Jesus is the "author and finisher" of our faith. Would an imperfect faith justify us before God? What man has a perfect faith? The Greek means...through, by means of, or by...but not in. We have faith in Christ...no doubt, but we also see the faith of Christ (unless you're reading the NIV),

I do not cite the NIV, I usually cite the KJV, unless I say otherwise.

Your explanation is avoiding the issue. Let's put aside interpretations for now. We can explain that later. First, let's look at Christ's faith...

The faith in Christ for what?

Define Faith, first, and then, tell me what Christ had "faith" in, according to that definition...

Secondly, what does JESUS say is necessary to be saved? Does Jesus ever refer to HIS faith???

I do not think the Bible supports YOUR interpretation - and even though the KJV SAYS "OF", I think it is more correctly translated, in modern English, as "IN". We are to have faith IN Jesus.

Over and over, the Bible speaks of believing in Jesus, not in His faith...

glorydaz said:
"Acts 26:18"] To open their eyes, and to turn them from darkness to light, and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive forgiveness of sins, and inheritance among them which are sanctified by faith that is in me.

Paul is speaking of His own faith, a result of Christ's presence within Paul... I don't see this as proving that we must have faith in Jesus' faith...

glorydaz said:
[/u]
Galatians 2:15-16 said:
We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles, Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
Would Paul write...the promise by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe


Again, the various versions do not use "by the faith OF Jesus Christ", so you are begging the question. Circular arguments will not convince me of anything, except that you cannot defend your position. Same with the rest of them. They merely repeat, in the same fashion, the interpretation of "OF", rather than "IN".

To effectively defend your position, you'll have to give me some verses from Jesus Christ HIMSELF that distinguishes between His faith and our faith in Him. He NEVER speaks of His OWN faith as salvific - but rather, the faith IN HIM. Would you like me to cite Him??? (I have found that most Protestants prefer to cite Paul then Jesus Christ, for some reason...)

Let not your heart be troubled: ye believe in God, believe also in me John 14:1

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. John 3:16

This is from the KJ, by the way...

Perhaps you should begin by explaining the faith of Jesus, as I suggest above...
 
Drew said:
mondar said:
Of course Judaism seeks justification by the Mosaic Law. God will impartially judge both unsaved Jew, and pagan Gentile on the basis of works.
He will indeed. But what mondar seems to screen out is what the result of that judgement will be - eternal life.
Quite an inflammatory statement. Rather then address what I am saying you use emotional terms like "screen out" as though I ignore evidence. While such Rhetoric might emotionally rally the faithful works oriented people, it does nothing to promote the discussion. I think you jump to accusations too fast. I am not screening out anything.

Nevertheless, when verses 5-6 are read together in context, we can see that the judgment of Chapter 2 relates to wrath, not blessing.

5 but after thy hardness and impenitent heart treasurest up for thyself wrath in the day of wrath and revelation of the righteous judgment of God;
6 who will render to every man according to his works:


What works are in verse 5 that verse 6 is referring to? The righteous judgment of God treasures up wrath for a day of wrath when God will judge every man according to his works.

When we get to verses 7-11 Paul is simply speaking about God as an impartial judge. He is not opening up the discussion to the possibility of a future justification by works. Notice Pauls conclusion in verses 7-11....
11 for there is no respect of persons with God.
Verse 11 is the application of verses 7-10. Paul is telling us what verses 7-10 mean.

The entire issue of a future justification is based not upon these verses, it is based upon verse 13. Their is where the future passive indicative of ?????????????? (will be justified) is found. When Paul gets to that point in his argument he is referring to the Mosaic Law. (I will not repeat arguments that verse 13 is about the Mosaic law here---please refer to my previous post.)

Drew said:
mondar said:
The context is a contrast between unsaved hypocritical Jews, and pagan Gentiles. The Jews seek justification by the Law of Moses, the pagan Gentiles seek justification by their own works and become as verse 14 says... "a law unto themselves."
This is not correct. Look at the wider context:

14For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves, 15in that they show the work of the Law written in their hearts,

The error of exegesis here is that it avoids what I stated in my previous post. Verses 14 and 15 is a parenthetical thought. The ASV even inserts a parenthesis into the text. While that is an editors insertion, it is correct.
14 (for when Gentiles that have not the law do by nature the things of the law, these, not having the law, are the law unto themselves;
15 in that they show the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness therewith, and their thoughts one with another accusing or else excusing them);

Notice how verse 14 begins.... it begins with a comment "for the Gentiles." This is a contrast with verses 12-13 which speak of the Jews and the Mosaic Law.
(more on verses 14-15 later--- It does not refer to the New Covenant)

Notice the connection of the context from before the parenthetical though and after....
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish [u]without the law]:[/u] and as many as have sinned under the law shall be judged by the law;
13 for not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified:

**** Notice the term "hearers of the law" ----- a very awkward term for a universal law that is not codified and cannot be read.
**** Also notice the contrast in these verses set up between the hearers of the law, and those not under the law (IE Gentiles)... Gentiles are not under the Mosaic Law, but are under the universal law.
**** Finally notice the connection to the verses after the parenthetical thought of verses 14-15.
16 in the day when God shall judge the secrets of men, according to my gospel, by Jesus Christ.
17 But if thou bearest the name of a Jew, and restest upon the law, and gloriest in God,
18 and knowest his will, and approvest the things that are excellent, being instructed out of the law,
19 and art confident that thou thyself art a guide of the blind, a light of them that are in darkness,
20 a corrector of the foolish, a teacher of babes, having in the law the form of knowledge and of the truth;
21 thou therefore that teachest another, teachest thou not thyself? thou that preachest a man should not steal, dost thou steal?
22 thou that sayest a man should not commit adultery, dost thou commit adultery? thou that abhorrest idols, dost thou rob temples?
23 thou who gloriest in the law, through thy transgression of the law dishonorest thou God?


Drew said:
The person familar with the Old Testament will know what this allusion to the Law being written on the heart is all about - it is about what will happen to God's people, not pagan Gentiles seeking salvation by their own works:

Paul is actually saying just the opposite as what Drew is suggesting. Paul is actually not talking about the people of God, but he is talking about Pagan Gentiles. Again, as I have said above, notice the way verse 14 begins....
14 (for when Gentiles that have not the law do by nature the things of the law...Paul is suggesting that even pagan, unregenerate Gentiles do some of the things in the Mosaic Law. Even Gentiles know it is wrong to steal, or commit adultery. As such they practice some of the Law. Does this save them? Certainly not! What Paul is talking about in the parenthetical thought is the guilt of the Jews! Think about it! The unregenerate unsaved Jew claims that he will be justified because he hears the law but what good will that do him, even the unregenerate unsaved Gentiles (the context here flows from chapter 1) by nature are practicing some things in the law.
---This relates not to the new covenant that is for "Israel and Judah" but refers to creation. In the original "image of God" in man at creation, the law was written on mans heart. It was marred in the fall, but part of that image remains. Enough remains in a pagan Gentile that he will keep part of the Mosaic Law by nature.

Drew said:
Now what I am commanding you today is not too difficult for you or beyond your reach. 12 It is not up in heaven, so that you have to ask, "Who will ascend into heaven to get it and proclaim it to us so we may obey it?" 13 Nor is it beyond the sea, so that you have to ask, "Who will cross the sea to get it and proclaim it to us so we may obey it?" 14 No, the word is very near you; it is in your mouth and in your heart so you may obey it.

This is, of course, about believers, not pagan Gentiles.
This does not pertain to Romans 2. I would certainly not disagree that this passage from Deuteronomy is about believers. It is slick the way Drew makes it look like a passage from Romans 2. Notice he does not give the full reference. Just a warning to unsuspecting readers.


Drew said:
And this:

"But this is the covenant which I will make with the house of Israel after those days," declares the LORD, " I will put My law within them and on their heart I will write it; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people.
This quote from Jeremiah 33 is certainly about the new covenant. While the heart language of Romans 2 might sound related to the New Covenant, it is not. I have addressed this above. It is related to the heart condition of man during creation. At creation, God wrote the law upon Adams heart. In verses 14-15 notice the connection to "conscience."
the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience bearing witness therewith,
Conscience began at creation.

Drew said:
It is clear that Paul here is talking about the saved Gentile enabled by God to do good. Paul is not, as mondar appears to be asserting, talking about the pagan Gentile seeking justification by works apart from God.
I am asserting exactly what Drew says I am because that is the context. Paul is not talking about the saved Gentile in verse 13, he is talking about the unsaved Jew and the Mosaic Law.

Please excuse the long post, but it takes more time to correct errors then to state erroneous views. Hopefully the reader will not just join in some emotional argumentation about the contribution of works man can contribute to his final justification. Please be driven to consider the text and the context.
 
mondar said:
Drew said:
mondar said:
MM, can I recommend you scroll back to the exegesis I posted of Romans 2. I think you will agree with what I said. You are correct, justification is a once and for all declaration that the believing sinner is just on the basis of Christs atonement.
Not according to Paul it isn't:

Yeah it is.
Here is what Paul says - at a future judgmenent, eternal life is granted according to good works:

God "will give to each person according to what he has done."[a] 7To those who by persistence in doing good seek glory, honor and immortality, he will give eternal life.

And, again, a future justification:

for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified
 
mondar said:
Please excuse the long post, but it takes more time to correct errors then to state erroneous views. Hopefully the reader will not just join in some emotional argumentation about the contribution of works man can contribute to his final justification. Please be driven to consider the text and the context.

The point of Romans 2-3:9 is not to discuss contributions of works for final justification. that's reading into the text something that is not at the heart of Paul's discussion here. He is not contradicting works to anything at this point.

It is about tearing down the supposed Jewish superiority they have through the Mosaic Law. The end of Romans 2 and the beginning of Romans 3 makes this clear... Romans 3:9 summarizes.

Pagans can be AS "circumcised" Jews, and will inherit heaven.
Jews can become AS "uncircumcised" pagans, and will not inherit heaven.

National superiority is useless when God determines who will attain eternal life.

One will not gain eternal life, if they do not follow God - whether the law written on one's heart or the Mosaic Law. While being Jewish has advantages (which Paul picks up again in Romans 9), he is very clear that all men are in the same position, Jew or Gentile, when God analyzes what we did on earth. The Jew will not get a pass, he cannot expect to be a hypocrite and be a blind teacher AND receive eternal life! Paul says good deeds bring life, not nationality (or later, obedience to the Law to expect payment)

You did say one thing correctly, though - ALL men are subject to the WRATH of God.

Regards
 
mondar said:
Your interpretation has the awkward idea that those who sin without the law are not Jews, and that the law they do not sin under is not the Mosaic Law. Obviously they are Jews, and verse 13 is obviously talking about the Mosiac Law. This is also backed up by the context a few verses later....
No. My interpretation is fine. You argue that I am saying that those without the law are not Jews. And indeed I am saying this – here Paul is clearly drawing a Jew – Gentile distinction in verse 12 where the “law†is obviously the Law of Moses. I am confident that you agree that “law†in verse 12 is the Law of Moses Now, you object to my then asserting that “law†in verse 13 – where Paul says that the doers of the law will be justified, is not the Law of Moses. Well, what is your argument? It is that later on Paul scolds the Jew for not obeying what is obviously the Law of Moses. Well, that’s true.

The problem is that you simply rule out a priori what is otherwise crystal clear in Paul - that he holds two senses of Law in his mind – the Law of Moses which for the Jew only and a “law†which can be obeyed by Jew and Gentile alike. It is clear from verse 14, which you conveniently omit, that there is indeed a “law†that the Gentile can obey. And this is obviously something other than the Law of Moses:

For when Gentiles who do not have the Law do instinctively the things of the Law, these, not having the Law, are a law to themselves

It is no surprise that you do not bring up this as it obviously shows that there are 2 “laws†on Paul’s mind here – a law which the believing Gentile can obey which is a Law other than the Law of Moses – which the Gentiles are clearly not under. This is indeed a little tricky and complicated, but Paul’s entire argument in Romans is so subtle that it has been largely missed in the reformation tradition. But one thing should be clear: The Gentile is clearly not under the Law of Moses – I am sure you know how the Old Testament makes it clear that the written code is only for the Jew. So Paul has to have another “law†in mind when he talks about the Gentile doing a “lawâ€.

And we also have verse 27:

And he who is physically uncircumcised, if he keeps the Law, will he not judge you who though having the letter of the Law and circumcision are a transgressor of the Law?

Paul clearly discerns both that the “letter†of the law – clearly the Law of Moses – is for Jews only and that there is a “law†that the Gentile keeps, which cannot, obviously, be the Law of Moses, since that law is for Jews only.

Here is what Paul writes later on in chapter 9:

What shall we say then? That Gentiles, who did not pursue righteousness, attained righteousness, even (BI)the righteousness which is by faith; 31but Israel, (BJ)pursuing a law of righteousness, did not (BK)arrive at that law. 32Why? Because they did not pursue it by faith, but as though it were by works

Paul is saying that there is a “law†that the Gentile did indeed “arrive atâ€, but that the Jew did not “arrive atâ€. This obviously cannot be the Law of Moses, so, again, we have powerful evidence that Paul has two “laws†in mind.

There are plenty of other arguments for this as well. Your argument implicitly assumes that there can be only one “law†that Paul is talking about. And the evidence shows that this is not the case.

Now, in conclusion, I want to address another element of your argument. Yes, Paul scolds the Jew later in the chapter. But that does not mean that any references to “law†earlier in the chapter have to be a reference to the Law of Moses. In particular, it is entirely coherent for Paul to be scolding the Jew for not keeping the Law of Moses, while also asserting that the Gentile has met the requirements of another law.

Readers: please refer to a second post to follow that further argues that teh "law" that justifies in verse 13 is not the Law of Moses.
 
mondar said:
Your interpretation has the awkward idea that those who sin without the law are not Jews, and that the law they do not sin under is not the Mosaic Law. Obviously they are Jews, and verse 13 is obviously talking about the Mosiac Law. This is also backed up by the context a few verses later....
I should probably have provided the argument I am about to give before the post I just made about how there are two “laws†on Paul’s mind in Romans 2. The problem is this: the fact that there are indeed two laws does not mean that the law in verse 13 in particular is not the Law of Moses, as mondar is asserting.

Showing that there are two laws only shows that it is plausible that, in verse 13, Paul is referring to something other than the Law of Moses. However, it is not hard to see how the “law†in verse 13 cannot be the Law of Moses:

11For (V)there is no partiality with God. 12For all who have sinned (W)without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; 13for it is (X)not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.

Here is the argument:

1. It is clear that Paul is dealing with God’s impartial treatment of Jew and Gentile (verse 11).

2. It is clear that “those without the Law†in verse 12 are Gentiles, while those “under the Law†in verse 12 are Jews;.

3. Now we have a situation where Paul has clearly both Jew and Gentile in mind and how God will treat them without partiality. So when he makes his statement in verse 13, he cannot simply be talking about Jews. No competent writer would build an argument as to how God will treat Jews and Gentile equally, and then entirely overlook Gentiles in his conclusion about who gets justified.

4. Since we know from verse 14 that Paul sees that there is a law that the Gentile can indeed keep, and since this cannot be the written code which the Gentile simply does not have, the “law†in verse 13 cannot be the Law of Moses.

5. Note the connective “for†between verses 12 and 13. As often with Paul, this functions as a “becauseâ€. In verses 11 and 12, Paul asserts that both Jew and Gentile will be judged impartially…..for….. it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified. Clearly, Paul still has both Gentile and Jew in view and therefore “law†here cannot be the Law of Moses. No one would say “God is impartial, Jew and Gentile will both be judged for the Jew will be judged by the Law of Mosesâ€. This makes no sense at all – clearly verse 13 has to be about something that applies to both Jew and Gentile.

Now that it is clear that “law†in verse 13 is not the Law of Moses, the argument of my earlier post can be deployed to fill in the rest – the “lawâ in verse 13 is this other “law†that Paul has in mind.
 
ivdavid said:
Drew,

thanks for replying to all my questions....I can't get any of Wright's works anytime soon. So you'll have to put up with me some more time. And please don't mind all my questions - I'm sincerely trying to get to the root of the problem.
Believe me, I am more than happy to try to answer your questions. However, I find your questions to be quite challenging and will have to think a bit about them. So if I field other poster's comments before returning to your questions, please do not take this as avoidance on my part.
 
francisdesales said:
Consider the Gospels. Does Jesus ever speak about salvation dependent upon HIS faith in God - or is eternal life based upon faith in Who He is and having faith in THAT? Please reconsider...
I have not really read your and gd's posts about this "faith" thing.

But I will offer this: There is indeed a sense in which it makes sense to speak of Jesus "faith". It is the sense of covenant faithfulness, where Jesus acts as Israel's representative Messiah to be faithful to the covenant, whereas Israel herself had been unfaithful.
 
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