Jim Parker
Member
No where does the scripture state that belief of the individual to be baptized must precede the baptism of that individual and thereby exclude infant baptism.It wouldn't be agreement with them would it? Rather it would be in agreement with what scripture states. Belief precedes baptism.
But scripture does include the teaching that an individual my enter into the covenant community before he attains to an age at which he is able to understand and believe.
Gen 17:9-13 And God said to Abraham, "As for you, you shall keep my covenant, you and your descendants after you throughout their generations. This is my covenant, which you shall keep, between me and you and your descendants after you: Every male among you shall be circumcised. You shall be circumcised in the flesh of your foreskins, and it shall be a sign of the covenant between me and you. He that is eight days old among you shall be circumcised; every male throughout your generations, whether born in your house, or bought with your money from any foreigner who is not of your offspring, both he that is born in your house and he that is bought with your money, shall be circumcised. So shall my covenant be in your flesh an everlasting covenant.
So, by the circumcision of an infant, the infant was brought into covenant relationship with God. The infant's belief or consent was not an issue.
There is nothing specifically stated in scripture about baptizing infants. We have only the witness of the practice of the Church from at least the end of the 1st century, that is; from the time of the generation of those who would have been taught by and have been contemporaries with the apostles.
iakov the fool