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If you truly just "glanced at" my study, that explains the great display of ignorance - again.
One of the main points of that study is the proven fact that (as in other languages) the exceptions must be known. The study
strongly points out the exception of the influence of
prepositions and genitives on the noun being examined.
Yes, the noun that is part of a prepositional phrase or is attached to a genitive may or may not use the article, BUT it does not always mean that noun is definite or indefinite. Please try reading the whole study carefully.
However, when the use of
theos by John is not one of those affected by the known exceptions, it is always governed by the use or non-use of the article.
The study also shows the use of "god" in scriptures and a long list of trinitarian scholars who agree.
John 8:54 does use
theos without the article. But as also pointed out in the studies, it is one of the
exceptions ("God
of you" - use of genitive) ! I believe you have pointed out this example before and you still refuse to examine what I have actually written. Of course I haven't changed it! Actually discuss what is written in the studies and comment on that.
John 20:28 is an entirely different subject. The article is used there and should be understood as needed. If you need another study of mine to mostly ignore and misuse here is John 20:28 -
http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2009/10/mygod.html