tigger 2
Member
TibiasDad, theos is always a nominative case NOUN. There is an adjective for it: theios. If John had meant an adjective (quality), he would have used the predicate adjective theios --- he did not! Can you find another use of the nominative theos in John's writings which is clearly intended to mean an adjective? Please show me if you find one.
John has nothing against using predicate adjectives when he so wishes:
John 3:33 "the god true (alethes - predicate adj.) is." Also John 8:14, 17, 26.
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The third clause (John1:1c) should not have theos translated with a capital. It should be a typical indefinite noun: "a god."
See my personal study: http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2013/02/seven-lessons-for-john-11c-a.html
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Obviously no one has read my study found in the link above. I'll make it easier in the case of John's use theos. Merely read part A of that link and then go to this end note in another study of mine:
http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2011/06/note-5-to-definite-john-11c-def.html
John has nothing against using predicate adjectives when he so wishes:
John 3:33 "the god true (alethes - predicate adj.) is." Also John 8:14, 17, 26.
......................................
The third clause (John1:1c) should not have theos translated with a capital. It should be a typical indefinite noun: "a god."
See my personal study: http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2013/02/seven-lessons-for-john-11c-a.html
............................................
Obviously no one has read my study found in the link above. I'll make it easier in the case of John's use theos. Merely read part A of that link and then go to this end note in another study of mine:
http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2011/06/note-5-to-definite-john-11c-def.html