Actually, these forms of the Greek words σωθῇ (sōthē) and ἵνα (hina) has another occurrence. Let’s see how your assessment of what the text supposedly means (should this person “NOT be brought to repentance”, as you hypothesize it means) matches up to the other example of their usage. [Which, by the way, “repentance” is not even mentioned in the text of 1 Cor 5. Why? Umm, because he’s not talking about repentance, that’s why.]
John 3:17 (LEB) For God did not send his Son into the world in order that he should judge the world, but in order that [hina] the world should be saved [sōthē] through him.
“
should be saved” is the English translation/conversion of the one word and its form in the Greek (sōthē). Same word as “
may be saved” is within 1 Cor 5:5 NASB
1 Corinthians 5:5 (LEB) I have decided to hand over such a person to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, in order that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord.
Like’s take your logic to its logical conclusion (for what would/should happen to this man, that is he’d lose his salvation if he didn’t repent). By hypothesizing that 1 Cor 5:5 is NOT done to him and apply it (compare it that is) to John 3:17 as follows:
You say:
The sinful fellow in the Corinth church can't be saved unless he is turned over to satan.
Now applying this same logic conclusion, of yours, not just to this man but all men (the world) your logic would imply:
The sinful world can't be saved unless the sinful world is turned over to satan. Which of course makes zero sense Biblically speaking as it’s 180 degrees from the truth. Why? Because John 3:17 tells us that it’s Christ that saves the sinful world, not Satan. And because you do not understand what Paul’s phrase meant to them in the first place (or either you do and just don’t care).
If you actually read the context in/around this verse we find out what Paul means by the phrase “
hand over such a person to Satan for the destruction of the flesh”. And it ain’t repentance or even his death. Paul simply and clearly meant to kick this guy out of their assembly. Think about it. How could that church literally “hand over such a person to Satan”? Kill him or pray to Satan to come get this guy or something? How would they literally hand him over to Satan? It’s obviously a phrase that meant something to them other than its literal meaning. Luckily Paul includes its meaning within the context of this partial verse.
Verse 2 is Paul’s instruction to them to
remove this person from their midst when they are assembled. (i.e. church discipline for this adulterer). Just read the context.
So how’s this person saved then? Umm, the same way every other person that is saved, is saved (see John 3:16-17 and ironically 1 Cor 5:4). He is saved “
by the power of our Lord Jesus”. See verse 4, which is literally within the same sentence as verse 5. Talk about ignoring context. At least post compete sentences within the Biblical text to show your debatable case(s).
Once again (as you did for 1 Cor 15:1-2 and I notice continue to do to that verse and many, many other passages as well) you rip a phrase out of its context in a rather feeble attempt to ‘prove’ anti-OSAS (since there is no actual verses that teaches anti-OSAS).
Why, because in my opinion, Anti-OSAS is quite literally Anti-“
the power of our Lord Jesus” (as taught here and elsewhere, including Hebrews and 1 Cor 15:1-2) since it’s Jesus that saves this man not Satan or even this man.