Perfection is God's requirement for anyone to be considered morally good.
No, perfection is God's standard for acceptance of you and I into His family and kingdom. Perfection is the standard for our redemption. But this standard is not the standard distinguishing a morally-good act from a morally-bad one. A man who has gotten drunk on Saturday night may rescue a child from a burning building on Sunday morning. Does his drunkenness make his saving of the child an immoral act? If so, what obligation has he to do anything moral? If, apart from Christ's perfect righteousness,
everything a man does is not morally good, that is, it is all evil, why should he make any distinction between right and wrong, good and evil? Under this bizarre thinking, rescuing a woman from a rapist is just as not-good, just as immoral - which is to say,
evil - an act as participating in her rape! This is nuts, obviously. But making perfection the standard of moral good requires just this sort of irrational and unbiblical view.
In the instances I already offered to you, God acknowledged the moral goodness of a man's actions, though that man was far from morally-perfect. Neither Noah, nor Job, nor David, nor Joseph, nor Cornelius, nor many other righteous men in the Bible were morally-perfect, but this did not mean they were unable to do moral things sufficient to be described by God as "righteous," "holy," "devout," "upright," "God-fearing," "holds fast his integrity," and "after my own heart."
Again, though God requires moral perfection in order for you and I to be reconciled to Himself and adopted into His family, He does not, in the life of the unsaved person, dissolve all moral distinctions, declaring everything they do, whether moral or immoral, exactly the same.
And the reality is, that all three examples that I have given are truly examples of the authors of the Bible taking other scripture out of its original context.
Well, except for your say-so, you've offered nothing to establish that this is the case. I've pointed out why what you're saying here is faulty but you've simply ignored my remarks and are parroting your initial assertions as though repetition of them is an argument for them.
You seem to think that you can finagle your way into making a case otherwise; but it is clear to me that my premise, that every verse in holy scripture stands on its own as a bastion of spiritual truth, has every basis in reality. The reality is that the scripture does not contradict itself; and therefore the context of a scripture is never going to nullify the plain meaning of that scripture.
I've not "finagled" my way to anything, but have simply pointed out what is plainly-evident in the verses you cited. It is ironic that your handling of Scripture actually pits it against itself, though you seem to think it doesn't; and you've set up a system of thinking about Scripture that encourages taking a verse out of its context, which is the surest and fastest way to a profound misunderstanding of what the verse really means.
2 Corinthians 9:6, if taken in its immediate context, actually purports the concept of the word of faith / health-wealth / prosperity teachers that we financially reap what we sow financially.
No, it doesn't.
2 Corinthians 9:5-11 (NASB)
5 So I thought it necessary to urge the brethren that they would go on ahead to you and arrange beforehand your previously promised bountiful gift, so that the same would be ready as a bountiful gift and not affected by covetousness.
6 Now this I say, he who sows sparingly will also reap sparingly, and he who sows bountifully will also reap bountifully.
7 Each one must do just as he has purposed in his heart, not grudgingly or under compulsion, for God loves a cheerful giver.
8 And God is able to make all grace abound to you, so that always having all sufficiency in everything, you may have an abundance for every good deed;
9 as it is written, "HE SCATTERED ABROAD, HE GAVE TO THE POOR, HIS RIGHTEOUSNESS ENDURES FOREVER."
10 Now He who supplies seed to the sower and bread for food will supply and multiply your seed for sowing and increase the harvest of your righteousness;
11 you will be enriched in everything for all liberality, which through us is producing thanksgiving to God.
What Paul is explaining in this passage is that the "promised bountiful gift" the believers at Corinth had committed to give in support of Paul was to be given "unaffected by covetousness" (
vs. 5) which, as he explained, meant "not grudgingly or under compulsion," but "cheerfully" (
vs. 7). This was to be the case because all that the believers at Corinth gave was supplied to them from God who was "able to make all grace abound" so that they "may have abundance for every good deed" (
vs.8). God "supplies seed to the sower and bread for food" and, Paul explained, would "enrich in everything" the believers at Corinth so that they could
continue to be liberal in their giving (
vs.11).
There is no Health-Wealth-Prosperity-Gospel doctrine delineated here but only the teaching that God provides materially for us so that we might be generous in our giving to others. God's eyes are on those He might bless
through us, not on
our health or wealth. As Paul's own story reveals, in service to God, believers may often be in material need.
Philippians 4:11-13 (NASB)
11 ...I have learned to be content in whatever circumstances I am.
12 I know how to get along with humble means, and I also know how to live in prosperity; in any and every circumstance I have learned the secret of being filled and going hungry, both of having abundance and suffering need.
13 I can do all things through Him who strengthens me.
2 Corinthians 11:23-28 (NASB)
23 Are they servants of Christ?—I speak as if insane—I more so; in far more labors, in far more imprisonments, beaten times without number, often in danger of death.
24 Five times I received from the Jews thirty-nine lashes.
25 Three times I was beaten with rods, once I was stoned, three times I was shipwrecked, a night and a day I have spent in the deep.
26 I have been on frequent journeys, in dangers from rivers, dangers from robbers, dangers from my countrymen, dangers from the Gentiles, dangers in the city, dangers in the wilderness, dangers on the sea, dangers among false brethren;
27 I have been in labor and hardship, through many sleepless nights, in hunger and thirst, often without food, in cold and exposure.
28 Apart from such external things, there is the daily pressure on me of concern for all the churches.
So, if you do not apply
Luke 8:11 so that it is in reference to the word of the Lord rather than financial sowing and reaping, I'm afraid that you are stuck with the interpretation of the word of faith / health-wealth / prosperity teachers.
"You do err, not knowing the Scriptures." See above.
It appears that you are doubling down on your concept that the scripture can contradict itself and that therefore context is all-important.
Deflection. And a tacit admission that you have nothing to offer in rebuttal of the import of prophetic speech in the verses you cited.
John clearly takes Zechariah's words out of context, applying them to the crucifixion when originally they apply to the 2nd coming.
But, as I showed you, his words in the verse don't
all apply to Jerusalem's defense by God but clearly refer prophetically to Christ - which, again, is why John referred to them as prophetic.
John 19:36-37 (NASB)
36 For these things came to pass to fulfill the Scripture, "NOT A BONE OF HIM SHALL BE BROKEN."
37 And again another Scripture says, "THEY SHALL LOOK ON HIM WHOM THEY PIERCED."
Zechariah 12:10 (NASB)
10 "I will pour out on the house of David and on the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the Spirit of grace and of supplication, so that they will look on Me whom they have pierced; and they will mourn for Him, as one mourns for an only son, and they will weep bitterly over Him like the bitter weeping over a firstborn.
See? John only mentions those words in
Zechariah 12:10 that speak prophetically
of Christ. How this becomes an out-of-context use of the prophetic remark about Christ, I don't know. Even
in context, what Zechariah had said about
Christ referred to him
only, not to Jerusalem. How, then, does John abuse Zechariah's words in an out-of-context way?
Anyway, I think we're done talking about this. At least, I am.