John 1:1 & 2

[Mysteryman]

Re: John 1:14 16

In verse 14 it states - "And the Word was made flesh" ,

We all are made in our mothers womb by God. The same holds true here. When it says that the "Word" (logos) was made flesh. Again, "logos" is the spoken word . In Isa. 9:6 a son was promised. Here, this is talking about the promise being manifested.

Titus 1:3 - "But hath in due times manifested his word (logos) through preaching , which is committed unto me according to the commandment of God our Saviour". The "commandment of God" is the "logos" of God.

I John 3:8 - "for this purpose the Son of God was manifested" (read the whole verse)

This is a good time to point to this verse in I Timothy 3:16 , as it relates to verse 14 , which states - "God was manifested in the flesh". Because we know that all of God can not come to this earth as it can not contain him. This verse once again is talking about -- the Spirit of God (remnant)

Jesus Christ is not the Word ! This is the "Word" = promise, being made flesh. The verse goes on to say, "we beheld his glory , the glory (light) as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth"

In verse 7 John came to witness the "Light" = Spirit of/from God

Here in verse 14 , the word "glory" is still talking about -- The Light = the Spirit of/from God.

Verse 15 substantiates this, as John wintess of him (pronoun) = The Light = the Spirit of/from God.

Verse 16 is speaking of what came before John, using the pronoun "he". Again, this is talking about --- the Spirit of God. Notice that nothing has changed from verse 1 on. Pronouns are easily misunderstood, but also very easily allows anyone to private interpret a pronoun. The word "he" then can be anyone/anything you want to make it. But because the Word of God does not change, the pronoun must remain the same. The Word was talking about -- the Spirit of God in verse one and in Genesis 1:1 and 2, and nothing changes.

We havn't gotten to verse 18 as of yet, and will soon. But it should be mentioned at this point within this thread, that no man has seen God at any time.

To be continued ----

 

[Mysteryman]

Re: John 1:17 - 28

In Verse 17 we read that the Law was given. Here is what is interesting about this comment. If you study the OT you will find out that the "Law" was called by two different references. It was called - 1. The Law of God, as well as -- 2. The Law of Moses.

Everything from God, which in this case was the "Law" of/from God , is given by way or through someone else. In this case this someone else was Moses.

The reason I am pointing this out, is because of the consistency within the Word of God. You will notice, if you havn't forgotten, in John 1:7 it said - "through him might believe". This "Light" that John came to bear witness of was the Spirit of/from God. That through him might believe. John was not that Light, and it was not "through" John that the Spirit of/from God (remnant) would come.

As verse 18 states - "No man has seen God at any time" . But it also states in this verse, that the only begotten Son , which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. This verse is clearly telling us,that through (verse 7) the only begotten Son would the Son declare who the Father was.

The Jews sent priests and Levites from Jerusalem to ask John if he was the promised messiah or the Prophet Elias (Elijah). And John said unto them that he was not. John was a Prophet of/from God, but he was not "That" Prophet. John went on to tell them, that he was the voice of one crying in the wilderness, who preceeds and makes straight the way of the Lord ( That Prophet ).

John made sure that they understood that he would come after him, who was prefered before him. The one John was refering too, was Jesus Christ , the only begotten Son. And through him you might believe.

Believe what ?

To be continued .........

 

[awaken]

Interesting thread...alot to think about!!!