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My take on Trinity

Would you agree that adding the "a" to John 1:1,
AND THE WORD WAS "A" GOD.....

Would create 2 gods?

I have 2 JW friends that can't grasp this.
Am I wrong?

For what it's worth, the translators of the Revised English Version translate John 1:1 like this:

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and what God was the Word was.

The footnote says:

The absence of the article (“the”) before “God” in the Greek makes the word “God” qualitative, which can be understood as “the Word had the character of God,” meaning that it was godly.
 
Would you agree that adding the "a" to John 1:1,
AND THE WORD WAS "A" GOD.....

Would create 2 gods?

I have 2 JW friends that can't grasp this.
Am I wrong?
You are correct. It would, which is why JWs say he is a lesser god, but that is Gnosticism.
 
(Psalms 82:6 NET) I thought, 'You are gods; all of you are sons of the Most High.'
What is the context of this verse? What does the entire chapter say? That will give you a hint at what is meant by “gods” and “sons of the Most High.”

Absolutely foundational are the clear statements of God himself, who said he knew of no other god and that there was no other god or ever would be another god. It doesn’t get clearer than that. So, when a later verse refers to men as “gods,” it cannot mean they are literal gods.
 
What is the context of this verse? What does the entire chapter say? That will give you a hint at what is meant by “gods” and “sons of the Most High.”

Absolutely foundational are the clear statements of God himself, who said he knew of no other god and that there was no other god or ever would be another god. It doesn’t get clearer than that. So, when a later verse refers to men as “gods,” it cannot mean they are literal gods.
The context is declaring that Satan will die like a man. It means literal gods.
 
What is the context of this verse? What does the entire chapter say? That will give you a hint at what is meant by “gods” and “sons of the Most High.”

Absolutely foundational are the clear statements of God himself, who said he knew of no other god and that there was no other god or ever would be another god. It doesn’t get clearer than that. So, when a later verse refers to men as “gods,” it cannot mean they are literal gods.
Perhaps you should also study the Hebrew also. There is no god beyond Him.
 
Since you don't know nominative means, my quoting other sources than the textbook won't help you.
Don’t assume what others know or don’t know. I have already stated that the construction of the third clause is an anarthrous predicate nominative. That means Θεὸς, without the definite article, is saying something about ὁ Λόγος. Since Θεὸς ends with 's' it is nominative and the subject of the verb. The verb, being ἦν, means that the subject, Θεὸς is a predict nominative.
Therefore, the third clause most definitely is: καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος. And, just so you know, that is supported by Mounce's Basics of Biblical Greek Grammar, which is sitting in front of me. I can also support that by any source online as well as James R. White's The Forgotten Trinity.

Do you believe in ECT?
Yes, but that is not the subject of this thread.

Do you understand what accusative means?
Yes. It means a word is the direct object of the verb, such as Θεόν in the second clause of John 1:1.

You do have a fundamental grasp of Greek nouns.
Thank you.

No it doesn't. It states there is only one Most High and that the sons of the God, the angels, were also gods. I am not talking Mormonism here.
The angels were not also gods. Mormonism, polytheism, Gnosticism—they’re all false. God says he is the only god and there will never be another. Obviously, words can have different meanings in different contexts.
 
Don’t assume what others know or don’t know. I have already stated that the construction of the third clause is an anarthrous predicate nominative. That means Θεὸς, without the definite article, is saying something about ὁ Λόγος. Since Θεὸς ends with 's' it is nominative and the subject of the verb. The verb, being ἦν, means that the subject, Θεὸς is a predict nominative.
Therefore, the third clause most definitely is: καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος. And, just so you know, that is supported by Mounce's Basics of Biblical Greek Grammar, which is sitting in front of me. I can also support that by any source online as well as James R. White's The Forgotten Trinity.


Yes, but that is not the subject of this thread.


Yes. It means a word is the direct object of the verb, such as Θεόν in the second clause of John 1:1.


Thank you.


The angels were not also gods. Mormonism, polytheism, Gnosticism—they’re all false. God says he is the only god and there will never be another. Obviously, words can have different meanings in different contexts.
What is ECT?
 
The context is declaring that Satan will die like a man. It means literal gods.
Satan?

Psa 82:1 A Psalm of Asaph. God has taken his place in the divine council; in the midst of the gods he holds judgment:
Psa 82:2 “How long will you judge unjustly and show partiality to the wicked? Selah
Psa 82:3 Give justice to the weak and the fatherless; maintain the right of the afflicted and the destitute.
Psa 82:4 Rescue the weak and the needy; deliver them from the hand of the wicked.”
Psa 82:5 They have neither knowledge nor understanding, they walk about in darkness; all the foundations of the earth are shaken.
Psa 82:6 I said, “You are gods, sons of the Most High, all of you;
Psa 82:7 nevertheless, like men you shall die, and fall like any prince.
Psa 82:8 Arise, O God, judge the earth; for you shall inherit all the nations!

Verses 2 and 7 show us that God is talking to men; those he has appointed as rulers and judges of his people. They are judging unjustly and showing "partiality to the wicked." The terms "gods" and phrase "sons of god," refer to their appointment as God's rulers and judges.

Again, first and foremost we must have as our foundation the following:

Deu 4:35 To you it was shown, that you might know that the LORD is God; there is no other besides him.

Deu 4:39 Acknowledge and take to heart this day that the LORD is God in heaven above and on the earth below. There is no other.

Deu 6:4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one.

Deu 32:39 "'See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no god beside me; I kill and I make alive; I wound and I heal; and there is none that can deliver out of my hand.

Isa 43:10 "You are my witnesses," declares the LORD, "and my servant whom I have chosen, that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he. Before me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after me.

Isa 44:6 Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: "I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no god.

Isa 45:5 I am the LORD, and there is no other, besides me there is no God; I equip you, though you do not know me,
Isa 45:6 that people may know, from the rising of the sun and from the west, that there is none besides me; I am the LORD, and there is no other.

Isa 45:18 For thus says the LORD, who created the heavens (he is God!), who formed the earth and made it (he established it; he did not create it empty, he formed it to be inhabited!): "I am the LORD, and there is no other.

Isa 45:21 Declare and present your case; let them take counsel together! Who told this long ago? Who declared it of old? Was it not I, the LORD? And there is no other god besides me, a righteous God and a Savior; there is none besides me.
Isa 45:22 "Turn to me and be saved, all the ends of the earth! For I am God, and there is no other.

Isa 46:9 remember the former things of old; for I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is none like me,

Also, in the NT:

Mar 12:29 "The most important one," answered Jesus, "is this: 'Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God, the Lord is one.
...
Mar 12:32 And the scribe said to him, “You are right, Teacher. You have truly said that he is one, and there is no other besides him.

1Ti 1:17 To the King of the ages, immortal, invisible, the only God, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen.

1Ti 2:5 For there is one God, and there is one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus,

Jas 2:19 You believe that God is one; you do well. Even the demons believe—and shudder!

Jud 1:25 to the only God, our Savior, through Jesus Christ our Lord, be glory, majesty, dominion, and authority, before all time and now and forever. Amen.

The Bible very clearly says there is only one God, from the beginning to the end. Not just one Mighty God or one Most High God; there is only one God.


So, what about the "gods" mentioned in the Bible?

1Co 8:4 Therefore, as to the eating of food offered to idols, we know that “an idol has no real existence,” and that “there is no God but one.”
1Co 8:5 For although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”—
1Co 8:6 yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.

Notice that Paul says "so-called gods in heaven or on earth." So, what of his statement 'as indeed there are many "gods"'? We already have that explained in Scripture:

Deu 4:28 And there you will serve gods of wood and stone, the work of human hands, that neither see, nor hear, nor eat, nor smell.

Deu 28:36 “The LORD will bring you and your king whom you set over you to a nation that neither you nor your fathers have known. And there you shall serve other gods of wood and stone.
...
Deu 28:64 “And the LORD will scatter you among all peoples, from one end of the earth to the other, and there you shall serve other gods of wood and stone, which neither you nor your fathers have known.

Deu 29:17 And you have seen their detestable things, their idols of wood and stone, of silver and gold, which were among them.

Isa 37:19 and have cast their gods into the fire. For they were no gods, but the work of men's hands, wood and stone. Therefore they were destroyed.

Isa 42:17 They are turned back and utterly put to shame, who trust in carved idols, who say to metal images, “You are our gods.

Jer 2:11 Has a nation changed its gods, even though they are no gods? But my people have changed their glory for that which does not profit.

Dan 5:4 They drank wine and praised the gods of gold and silver, bronze, iron, wood, and stone.


All the gods of the peoples are merely man-made idols, although there is more to it than that:

1Co 10:19 What do I imply then? That food offered to idols is anything, or that an idol is anything?
1Co 10:20 No, I imply that what pagans sacrifice they offer to demons and not to God. I do not want you to be participants with demons.

Rev 9:20 The rest of mankind, who were not killed by these plagues, did not repent of the works of their hands nor give up worshiping demons and idols of gold and silver and bronze and stone and wood, which cannot see or hear or walk,

These gods of the peoples, their man-made idols, have demonic power behind them, but that clearly doesn't mean the demons are gods.

(All ESV.)

Throughout the Bible, we consistently see that there is only one God. The use of "gods" refers to man-made idols and "sons of God" refers to those whom God has made rulers and authorities on his behalf. It can also mean those who are righteous (Deut 6:2). In a general sense, a god is anything we worship--money, fame, power, etc. But there are no other actual "gods."
 
1Co 8:5 For although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”—
(1Co 8:5 KJV) For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)

It has to be mistranslated to say there aren't other supernaturals.

Notice:
(1Co 8:6 KJV) But to us [there is but] one God, the Father, of whom [are] all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom [are] all things, and we by him.

Do you deny other supernaturals?
 
(1Co 8:5 KJV) For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,)

It has to be mistranslated to say there aren't other supernaturals.
Why does it have to be mistranslated? What do you mean by "supernaturals" and how does the verse address supernaturals?

Notice:
(1Co 8:6 KJV) But to us [there is but] one God, the Father, of whom [are] all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom [are] all things, and we by him.

Do you deny other supernaturals?
It depends on what you mean by supernaturals.

One thing you should notice in this verse is that if "of whom are all things" speaks of the Father's eternal existence (since he could not be one of those things), then "by whom are all things" equally speaks of the Son's eternal existence (since he, too, could not be one of those things). That is simple logic that also agrees with John 1:3 and Col 1:16-17. And, as I've stated, eternal existence is an attribute of God alone, meaning that the Son is God in the same way the Father is.
 
Sorry, but it is hard for me to trust you, when you want to believe in ECT. Goodbye.
Trust me in what? You have twice claimed knowledge of Greek grammar and reinterpret John 1:1 in a way that no translation does. I have repeatedly asked for legitimate sources and you have yet to provide a single one. And I have also provided sources that disagree with your interpretation of John 1:1 and that your knowledge of Greek grammar is not correct. To want to end the discussion on something completely irrelevant to the discussion sure looks suspicious.
 
Trust me in what? You have twice claimed knowledge of Greek grammar and reinterpret John 1:1 in a way that no translation does. I have repeatedly asked for legitimate sources and you have yet to provide a single one. And I have also provided sources that disagree with your interpretation of John 1:1 and that your knowledge of Greek grammar is not correct. To want to end the discussion on something completely irrelevant to the discussion sure looks suspicious.
You don't know Greek so I why should I listen to you.
 
Therefore, the third clause most definitely is: καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος. And, just so you know, that is supported by Mounce's Basics of Biblical Greek Grammar, which is sitting in front of me. I can also support that by any source online as well as James R. White's The Forgotten Trinity.
ὁ Λόγος is not the subject of the clause. How you explain that? You are not rightly dividing the Greek.
 
It isn't Christian, but I hope you realize the Catholics invented it.

Jesus doesn't agree with you:

Matthew 25:36
And these will go away into eternal punishment, but the righteous into eternal life.”
Jude 1:7
Just as Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding cities, which likewise indulged in sexual immorality and pursued unnatural desire, serve as an example by undergoing a punishment of eternal fire.
Matthew 25:41
“Then he will say to those on his left, ‘Depart from me, you cursed, into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels.
2 Thessalonians 1:9
They will suffer the punishment of eternal destruction, away from the presence of the Lord and from the glory of his might,
Revelation 14:11
And the smoke of their torment goes up forever and ever, and they have no rest, day or night, these worshipers of the beast and its image, and whoever receives the mark of its name.”
Matthew 18:8
And if your hand or your foot causes you to sin, cut it off and throw it away. It is better for you to enter life crippled or lame than with two hands or two feet to be thrown into the eternal fire.
 
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