Examine the scriptures to see why he got circumcised and you will have your answer.
I know why Timothy (not Titus) got circumcised. I asked you if Titus were to get circumcised there in Galatia; would that de-save him given your view of the passage. So your understanding is the "why" someone were to get circumcised makes all the difference. Good, I previously already agreed with that assessment.
Galatians 5:3 (NASB) And I testify again to every man who receives circumcision, that he is under obligation to keep the whole Law.
So you (or me or anyone else) can't rightly just take Gal 5:3 all by itself and apply it to other, out of context, situations/contexts. Not that you have. I'm just saying Gal 5:4 (and every other verse, phrase, snip) should be treated the same way. I think you are taking 5:4's "fallen from grace" and "severed from Christ" out of context.
Galatians 5:4, 7-9 (NASB) You have been severed from Christ, you who are seeking to be justified by law; you have fallen from grace.
...
You were running well; who hindered you from obeying the truth? This persuasion did not come from Him who calls you. A little leaven leavens the whole lump of dough.
Timothy (a man) got circumcised (his foreskin severed) to justify himself to other Jews in the region while he and Paul preached Christ to those Jews, yet did not keep the whole Law. Was he de-saved because he got circumcised?
Acts 16:1-3 (NASB) Paul came also to Derbe and to Lystra. And a disciple was there, named Timothy, the son of a Jewish woman who was a believer, but his father was a Greek, and he was well spoken of by the brethren who were in Lystra and Iconium. Paul wanted this man to go with him; and he took him and circumcised him because of the Jews who were in those parts, for they all knew that his father was a Greek.
All you are doing with Gal 5:4 is taking a phrase like "fallen from grace" (which didn't then, nor does it today, mean fallen from salvation) and forcing it into your idea that Paul was even talking about de-salvation in the first place. Not to mention that it doesn't fit the situation of a Christian church member turning atheist, even if it did. He's clearly, throughout the whole letter, talking about Christians (yes many genuine Christians, I'm sure) getting circumcised to 'justify' themselves to the others hindering them. The Text doesn't say or imply that they were doing it for their justification before God. You assume that. That was and is my point.
Heck, if all I knew about the passage was"...severed from Christ...", I would think severed from salvation was what he meant too. The problem is, the context surrounding the phrase indicates (to me) he was not talking about de-salvation. Yes, I realize that sentence will likely generate a reply on the order of "pre-supposition, circular reasoning, etc.). I don't care. I'm just being honest. Based on the context and other statements made by Paul, right there in Gal 5, it seems highly unlikely Paul was talking about de-salvation based on a foreskin or two getting severed. I think he was using hyperbole there just as he was here:
Galatians 5:12 (NASB) I wish that those who are troubling you would even mutilate themselves.
Plus, I find it highly unlikely that the hindering/persuasion coming from others to get circumcised means these people stopped believing in Christ.
I showed you the context was 'justification', not rewards, or physical death.
You showed where justification before fellow Jews persuading them to get circumcised was in context. Not justification (salvation) to God. God doesn't give a hoot (one way or the other) whether Titus or Timothy got circumcised. Neither did Paul.
I'm not evading or ignoring anything.
You evaded answering my simple and direct questions in regard to Titus getting circumcised.