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Other gods

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Define what a god is. First, it can be a supreme being as in God and according to God there are no other gods. So how can there be a god? A god is a god by our own definition and can be anything that we might hold in high esteem, value, importance, reverence, etc. Anything that we might worship, pay special attention to, honor, give glory to, or otherwise place in a position above the one and only God.

God says there are no other gods and this is true. Human desire to make gods does not make them Gods but to us they become gods. "Thou shalt have no other gods before Me," says the Lord.
 
smaller said:
There are no other "G"ods.


Your list is not going to be coherent. But here we go:


Howso? Is the alternative that Paul lied?


The fact remains that "other gods," very real with real powers are shown in the scriptures. There is no getting around this fact on the ground of "man's imaginations."


Look, some scriptures are and can only be TRUE in the "U"ltimate Eternal Sense, such as Gods Statement of Fact here:

Isaiah 45:6
That they may know from the rising of the sun, and from the west, that there is none beside me. I am the Lord, and there is none else.

IF we were to read the bold above, on the face of it, it would appear that GOD IS ALL THERE IS. And, in the ultimate and eternal senses, that is TRUE.

1 Tim. 6:
15 which God will bring about in his own time God, the blessed and only Ruler, the King of kings and Lord of lords,
16 who alone is immortal and who lives in unapproachable light, whom no one has seen or can see. To him be honor and might forever. Amen.


It's called an excluded middle construct logical fallacy from your end.
Click to expand...
You answered without answering, by pitting Scripture against itself. This should be very simple. Which point is it that is true? Four choices, simple answer.

You have not at all shown that I have committed the excluded middle fallacy. According to your position, there is no other option. From my position there is another choice--that you and jaybird simply do not understand how the Bible uses the term "god".
 
Psalm 82:6 defines the people of Israel ALSO as little g gods in addition to being children of GOD. Are we going to say they aren't real and are imaginary?

Psalm 82:
6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.

Scripture is somewhat loose about who and how this term, "god," can apply, as we can observe above.

Definition:
  1. (plural)
    1. rulers, judges
    2. divine ones
    3. angels
    4. gods
  2. (plural intensive - singular meaning)
    1. god, goddess
    2. godlike one
    3. works or special possessions of God
    4. the (true) God
    5. God
 
Free said:
You answered without answering, by pitting Scripture against itself. This should be very simple. Which point is it that is true? Four choices, simple answer.
Click to expand...

No Free. Your box is insufficient and false.

Paul shows us there is a "god" of this world that has power, blinding. 2 Cor. 4:4.

Scripture applies the term "god" in many ways. And SOME, non-existing, yes. But that does not eliminate the scriptures that show otherwise.
You have not at all shown that I have committed the excluded middle fallacy. According to your position, there is no other option. From my position there is another choice--that you and jaybird simply do not understand how the Bible uses the term "god".
Click to expand...

You have a bigtime logically fallacy of "excluding" other arguments in your question set and that is all there is to it.
 
smaller said:
No Free. Your box is insufficient and false.

Paul shows us there is a "god" of this world that has power, blinding. 2 Cor. 4:4.

Scripture applies the term "god" in many ways. And SOME, non-existing, yes. But that does not eliminate the scriptures that show otherwise.
Click to expand...
Yes, there are a few ways in how the term is used. So, now that you know that, how do you answer my question?

You are continuing to pit scripture against scripture by completely ignoring the passages I previously gave, which is a bad idea.

You have a bigtime logically fallacy of "excluding" other arguments in your question set and that is all there is to it.
Click to expand...
There is no fallacy unless you give me some valid arguments. Simply saying I have committed a fallacy does not mean that I have.
 
Free said:
Yes, there are a few ways in how the term is used. So, now that you know that, how do you answer my question?

You are continuing to pit scripture against scripture by completely ignoring the passages I previously gave, which is a bad idea.
Click to expand...

I've read your responses, which are, in effect, that there are "no other gods." And that is NOT true. You are also trying to claim that if there are any "gods" they are only the imaginations of mankind. Again, NOT true.
 
smaller said:
I've read your responses, which are, in effect, that there are "no other gods." And that is NOT true. You are also trying to claim that if there are any "gods" they are only the imaginations of mankind. Again, NOT true.
Click to expand...
You keep saying it isn't true but you keep ignoring several clear passages of Scripture which I have given.
 
Free said:
You keep saying it isn't true but you keep ignoring several clear passages of Scripture which I have given.
Click to expand...
IF your arguments are as I noted here:

I've read your responses, which are, in effect, that there are "no other gods." And that is NOT true. You are also trying to claim that if there are any "gods" they are only the imaginations of mankind. Again, NOT true.

I've already shown, scripturally, how and why those claims are false.

IF you are not making those claims then we have no differences.
 
smaller said:
IF your arguments are as I noted here:

I've read your responses, which are, in effect, that there are "no other gods." And that is NOT true. You are also trying to claim that if there are any "gods" they are only the imaginations of mankind. Again, NOT true.

I've already shown, scripturally, how and why those claims are false.

IF you are not making those claims then we have no differences.
Click to expand...
And yet you still refuse to engage the passages which I have given. Until you actually take into account all that the Bible says about this, you will never come to the truth.

You think you're right and claim I'm wrong, to the point that you ignore Scripture. You just want to win an argument rather than come to the truth. You're in dangerous territory.
 
smaller said:
Psalm 82:6 defines the people of Israel ALSO as little g gods in addition to being children of GOD. Are we going to say they aren't real and are imaginary?

Psalm 82:
6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.

Scripture is somewhat loose about who and how this term, "god," can apply, as we can observe above.

Definition:
  1. (plural)
    1. rulers, judges
    2. divine ones
    3. angels
    4. gods
  2. (plural intensive - singular meaning)
    1. god, goddess
    2. godlike one
    3. works or special possessions of God
    4. the (true) God
    5. God
Click to expand...
if the gods of psalms 82 are people how did they get into a divine assembly and why would they be judged to die like men when they are already men? i thnk that would rule out people in the sense that we are.
 
jaybird said:
if the gods of psalms 82 are people how did they get into a divine assembly
Click to expand...

It is entirely OBVIOUS that the people of Israel are said to be "gods" in Psalm 82:6. This wipes out any notions that they were "imaginary gods" as these were (and still are) real people. Jesus affirms this citing in Psalm 82:6 by citing part of it in:

John 10:34
Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?

Moving on to the second part of your question regarding the "divine assembly" ALL the people of Israel were taught by scripture to be Gods children, for example in Deut. 14:1 and affirmed by Jesus in Matt. 23:9. There are other similar citings in the O.T.

So a divine assembly is not difficult to perceive IF we see them properly, as Gods children. This is how God Himself Sees them, and has stated the facts as such. The facts as written can not change.
and why would they be judged to die like men when they are already men? i thnk that would rule out people in the sense that we are.
Click to expand...

And that would require an accurate sight of the construct of "mankind." Mark 4:15, Acts 26:18, Romans 11:8, Romans 11:32, 2 Cor. 4:4, Eph. 2:2 and many many other scriptures show us the construct of Israel and of mankind in general. And if we are paying attentions to the details we'll see that the construct of mankind is not "just and only mankind." Paul for example, in Romans 7:17-21 shows that his own construct in the flesh has indwelling sin that was NOT him, and evil present with him, both of which are adverse spiritual or disobedient spiritual components that were NOT Paul. Paul shows this fact specifically upon himself in 2 Cor. 12:7, and John affirms this sight in 1 John 3:8. But most are purposefully blinded, by God, to this reality. IF any believer doesn't see it for themselves they will remain clueless about anything I've cited in this paragraph, by Divine Design and Intention.
 
smaller said:
It is entirely OBVIOUS that the people of Israel are said to be "gods" in Psalm 82:6. This wipes out any notions that they were "imaginary gods" as these were (and still are) real people. Jesus affirms this citing in Psalm 82:6 by citing part of it in:
Click to expand...
when did the people of Israel not "die like men?

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