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Bible Study Sons Of God, Giants & The New World Order - Pt 1

And this is what makes the topic significant, what Jesus said comparing the days of Noah to the end times we feel we need to be prepared to face.

Agreed.

Who was marrying and given in marriage during those days is significant.

Personally, I don't agree with the teaching that these sons of God who are chained in the bottom of hell, will be let loose again, but I do see other genetic manipulation taking place today, as many countries have already produced test tube animals and Chimera's.



ME
 
And this is what makes the topic significant, what Jesus said comparing the days of Noah to the end times we feel we need to be prepared to face.
Jesus explains exactly what he means by that and it has absolutely nothing to do with Nephilim:

Mat 24:37 For as were the days of Noah, so will be the coming of the Son of Man.
Mat 24:38 For as in those days before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day when Noah entered the ark,
Mat 24:39 and they were unaware until the flood came and swept them all away, so will be the coming of the Son of Man. (ESV)

The people ignored the warnings and carried on with life, and were then caught suddenly in judgment.

This offers no explanation for why Seth's children would be Nephilim, or in any way remarkable.
That has no bearing on the issue. If the Bible states that something is the case, then it is the case, and it need not provide an explanation.
 
Some where along the thread in a Christian forum one would think content just might matter.. :shame


Could you please be a little more specific.

We are discussing whether the sons of God were a reference to angels or to men.

The New Testament writers referred to them as angels.


And the angels who did not keep their proper domain, but left their own abode, He has reserved in everlasting chains under darkness for the judgment of the great day; Jude 6

Jude who quoted Enoch, says they were angels who left their proper domain and abode, which is the domain of the heavenly realm.


Can human's leave their domain and abode?


The only case I see of angels improperly leaving their domain and abode is the case in Genesis 6.



ME
 

This is not an intelligent response to the fact that Enoch is in three parts. Someone else posted that Enoch was rejected by the Jews because it was all one author. That's clearly false, the three sections are of such different quality that not only are they written by different authors, but very likely originate from different time periods as well.
 
That has no bearing on the issue. If the Bible states that something is the case, then it is the case, and it need not provide an explanation.


Ok, so the bible says that Seth was a son of man, a reference to a son of Adam, and not a son of God.


And Adam lived one hundred and thirty years, and begot a son in his own likeness, after his image, and named him Seth.
Genesis 5:3


That settles it.


The sin and death from Adam's disobedience was spread to Seth, and so on, and so on.






ME
 
This is not an intelligent response to the fact that Enoch is in three parts. Someone else posted that Enoch was rejected by the Jews because it was all one author. That's clearly false, the three sections are of such different quality that not only are they written by different authors, but very likely originate from different time periods as well.

Clearly I wouldn't let that thing in my house
 
I believe the giants [Nephilim] were going about their business as usual and were caught suddenly in judgement, along with the rest.

Wouldn't you agree?
It rather goes without saying but in no way whatsoever does it mean that the Nephilim (not giants) will be back on the earth. Jesus's only point is that people will continue to live in sin, going about their business, and then get caught unaware at his coming. As such, it really has no bearing on this topic.
 
Ok, so the bible says that Seth was a son of man, a reference to a son of Adam, and not a son of God.


And Adam lived one hundred and thirty years, and begot a son in his own likeness, after his image, and named him Seth.
Genesis 5:3


That settles it.


The sin and death from Adam's disobedience was spread to Seth, and so on, and so on.
Settles what? That Seth was human and inherited Adam's sinful nature, the same as the rest of humanity? Of course, that, too, goes without saying. That has never been the issue.
 
Settles what? That Seth was human and inherited Adam's sinful nature, the same as the rest of humanity? Of course, that, too, goes without saying. That has never been the issue.


So please explain how two human beings that are spiritually dead, can reproduce a son of God.

Furthermore, how can two born again, spiritually alive human being reproduce a son of God.

After the fall, the only way to become a son of God, is through faith in Jesus Christ in which the person is born again.

If a son of God could be produced through the natural birth process then the cross would not have been needed.


If you believe Noah was a son of God, then great, why weren't his children called Nephilim?


It is crystal clear to me that the sons of God, who had relations with the daughters of men, were angels who left their own abode, and manifested in this natural world, and were no drowned in the flood, because they were angels.


It's also clear to Jude, who associates these angels who left their own abode, with sexual immorality.


6 And the angels who did not keep their proper domain, but left their own abode, He has reserved in everlasting chains under darkness for the judgment of the great day; 7 as Sodom and Gomorrah, and the cities around them in a similar manner to these, having given themselves over to sexual immorality and gone after strange flesh, are set forth as an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire. Jude 6-7



Please consider these points I have made, with the passages that I have listed.





ME
 
It rather goes without saying but in no way whatsoever does it mean that the Nephilim (not giants) will be back on the earth. Jesus's only point is that people will continue to live in sin, going about their business, and then get caught unaware at his coming. As such, it really has no bearing on this topic.


They absolutely were giants.

There we saw the giants (the descendants of Anak came from the giants); and we were like grasshoppers in our own sight, and so we were in their sight.” Numbers 13:33 NKJV


And there we saw the giants, the sons of Anak, which come of the giants: and we were in our own sight as grasshoppers, and so we were in their sight. Numbers 13:33 KJV

33 and there we saw the Nephilim, sons of Anak, of the Nephilim; and we are in our own eyes as grasshoppers; and so we were in their eyes.' Numbers 13:33 YLT



ME
 
So please explain how two human beings that are spiritually dead, can reproduce a son of God.

Furthermore, how can two born again, spiritually alive human being reproduce a son of God.

After the fall, the only way to become a son of God, is through faith in Jesus Christ in which the person is born again.

If a son of God could be produced through the natural birth process then the cross would not have been needed.

If you believe Noah was a son of God, then great, why weren't his children called Nephilim?
This will be the last I respond. You keep repeating yourself and expect me to respond, yet there is much of what I have posted that hasn't been responded to.

I have pointed out previously that your questions are irrelevant, and they're irrelevant because the OT (Ps. 82:6) has God referring to human judges as "sons of the Most High," that is, "sons of God." Even more than that, God calls them "gods," elohim, which is a word only ever used of God except in this instance.

Looking at what Jesus said:

Joh 10:30 I and the Father are one.”
Joh 10:31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone him.
Joh 10:32 Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?”
Joh 10:33 The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.”
10:34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’?
Joh 10:35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken—
Joh 10:36 do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? (ESV)

A few things from this passage that are relevant to the discussion:

1. Jesus confirms what I have been saying about Ps. 82:6--that the judges, also called "gods" and "sons of the Most High," is referring to humans.
2. These judges, these "gods" and "sons of the Most High," were sinful, mortal men.
3. Jesus is arguing that the Jews have no reason to stone him for blasphemy for claiming to be the Son of God when they have been called gods by God himself.

That Ps. 82:6 is speaking of men is undeniable. So, it is the case that the OT refers to men as sons of the Most High, that is, sons of God. Hence why your questions are irrelevant--there is no explanation that can be given, or answer that is necessary, as you are arguing against something that Scripture states to be the case. This suggests that you have assumed a certain meaning for "sons of God" which may not be correct.
 
This will be the last I respond. You keep repeating yourself and expect me to respond, yet there is much of what I have posted that hasn't been responded to.

I have pointed out previously that your questions are irrelevant,


My questions are not irrelevant to me.

Human beings do not reproduce sons of God through birth, nor do they reproduce giants.



ME
 
This will be the last I respond. You keep repeating yourself and expect me to respond, yet there is much of what I have posted that hasn't been responded to.

I have pointed out previously that your questions are irrelevant, and they're irrelevant because the OT (Ps. 82:6) has God referring to human judges as "sons of the Most High," that is, "sons of God." Even more than that, God calls them "gods," elohim, which is a word only ever used of God except in this instance.

Looking at what Jesus said:

Joh 10:30 I and the Father are one.”
Joh 10:31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone him.
Joh 10:32 Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?”
Joh 10:33 The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.”
10:34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’?
Joh 10:35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken—
Joh 10:36 do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? (ESV)

A few things from this passage that are relevant to the discussion:

1. Jesus confirms what I have been saying about Ps. 82:6--that the judges, also called "gods" and "sons of the Most High," is referring to humans.
2. These judges, these "gods" and "sons of the Most High," were sinful, mortal men.
3. Jesus is arguing that the Jews have no reason to stone him for blasphemy for claiming to be the Son of God when they have been called gods by God himself.

That Ps. 82:6 is speaking of men is undeniable. So, it is the case that the OT refers to men as sons of the Most High, that is, sons of God. Hence why your questions are irrelevant--there is no explanation that can be given, or answer that is necessary, as you are arguing against something that Scripture states to be the case. This suggests that you have assumed a certain meaning for "sons of God" which may not be correct.

Do you believe a born again man and woman have the ability to reproduce, through natural child birth, Nephilim giants.?

Do you believe a born again man and woman have the ability to reproduce through natural child birth, sons of God?


JLB
 
It is crystal clear to me that the sons of God, who had relations with the daughters of men, were angels who left their own abode, and manifested in this natural world, and were no drowned in the flood, because they were angels.
hang on this angel theory does not compute as they are neither male or females they do not have material bodies as humans do. This is further supported by the fact they do not function as human beings in terms of marriage and procreation (mark 12:25 For when they rise from the dead,they neither marry nor are given in marriage but are like angels in heaven. ) nor are they subject to death (Luke 20:36 36 For they cannot die anymore, because they are like angels and are sons of God, since they are sons of the resurrection ). i will confess the sons of God and giants is a bit of a mystery to me.. but to say angels impregnated someone is NOT Bible
 
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