So please explain how two human beings that are spiritually dead, can reproduce a son of God.
Furthermore, how can two born again, spiritually alive human being reproduce a son of God.
After the fall, the only way to become a son of God, is through faith in Jesus Christ in which the person is born again.
If a son of God could be produced through the natural birth process then the cross would not have been needed.
If you believe Noah was a son of God, then great, why weren't his children called Nephilim?
This will be the last I respond. You keep repeating yourself and expect me to respond, yet there is much of what I have posted that hasn't been responded to.
I have pointed out previously that your questions are irrelevant, and they're irrelevant because the OT (Ps. 82:6) has God referring to human judges as "sons of the Most High," that is, "sons of God." Even more than that, God calls them "gods,"
elohim, which is a word only ever used of God except in this instance.
Looking at what Jesus said:
Joh 10:30 I and the Father are one.”
Joh 10:31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone him.
Joh 10:32 Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?”
Joh 10:33 The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.”
10:34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’?
Joh 10:35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken—
Joh 10:36 do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? (ESV)
A few things from this passage that are relevant to the discussion:
1. Jesus confirms what I have been saying about Ps. 82:6--that the judges, also called "gods" and "sons of the Most High," is referring to humans.
2. These judges, these "gods" and "sons of the Most High," were sinful, mortal men.
3. Jesus is arguing that the Jews have no reason to stone him for blasphemy for claiming to be the Son of God when they have been called gods by God himself.
That Ps. 82:6 is speaking of men is undeniable. So, it is the case that the OT refers to men as sons of the Most High, that is, sons of God. Hence why your questions are irrelevant--there is no explanation that can be given, or answer that is necessary, as you are arguing against something that Scripture states to be the case. This suggests that you have assumed a certain meaning for "sons of God" which may not be correct.