The Bible
Quote of L & L M:
Hebrews 1:1-2 makes the clear argument that in the "last of these days" (correct Greek grammar) in which God spoke directly, there would be a final revelation concerning His Son, our Lord Yeshua. That final revelation is the last book of the New Testament which calls itself "The Revelation of Jesus Christ" - it is an uncovering or unveiling of His Person and majesty like no other portion of God's Word. It is in that book (in its last chapter - 22:18-19) that deals with the future - clear into eternity - that we have the warning against adding to its words or taking away any of its words. God's revelation ended with the Book of Revelation! We are no longer hearing God's direct and audible revelation - He is finished and now holds us accountable for all that He revealed to us about the past, the present, and the future!
I do not interpret Hebrew 1:1-2 as saying that "God spoke directly in these last days". Verse 1 says, "God....spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets." NOTICE: "By the prophets."
Verse 2: "Hath in these last days spoken to by (his) Son,..." Again NOTICE: "..by (his) Son"; literally "in Son".
I'm not a real OT scholar. Could you give verses where God gave His direct and audible revelation to the masses?
I interpret Rev. 22:18-19 to mean just what it says: "If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book. And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book."
John writes "these things" and "this book", i.e., the book of Revelation.
Also, "the book of this prophecy", can only mean Revelation.
If, you apply the curses upon, and the blessings lost, to the scope of the whole Bible, then those translators who, as you imply, have either taken away or added to, the "inspired Greek text", did any curses fall on them in their life time?
The sad thing to me, is that one version or another is automatically condemned because of preconceived ideas, believing they couldn't be reasonably accurate.
If the earliest translators, such as Tyndale, would have translated as literal as possible to the "Textus Receptus", there would be so much less confusion in seeking the truth. But, to me, even his theology regarding many things was already set (as with practically all of us), which influenced his choice of words.
And so, all of the early English versions, including the AV, have the same problems.
There are many, I'll give a few examples:
Luke 1:32-33: KJV, "He shall be called great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David: And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever: and of his kingdom there shall be no end."
Now, 1 Cor. 15:24-28: "Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. For he must reign, till he hath put all enemie under his feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all."
I is a long quote. But Paul is emphatic that God gives the rule to the Son. And eventually, all enemies will be put under his feet, and then Christ delivers the kingdom to God, even the Father. Christ's rule ends because every thing/everyone in the universe is subdued to him; and then Christ, the Son, becomes subject unto the Father, that God may be all in all.
The problem in Luke is most compilers of the versions used the word "ever" for "age" the correct meaning of the Greek word "aion".
Please, check this out in a concordance, such as Young's.
I don't want to be misunderstood. I am most familiar with the KJV, and refer to it, as well as the other versions I have. But, all the tools should be used to arrive at the truth.
Bick
Quote of L & L M:
Hebrews 1:1-2 makes the clear argument that in the "last of these days" (correct Greek grammar) in which God spoke directly, there would be a final revelation concerning His Son, our Lord Yeshua. That final revelation is the last book of the New Testament which calls itself "The Revelation of Jesus Christ" - it is an uncovering or unveiling of His Person and majesty like no other portion of God's Word. It is in that book (in its last chapter - 22:18-19) that deals with the future - clear into eternity - that we have the warning against adding to its words or taking away any of its words. God's revelation ended with the Book of Revelation! We are no longer hearing God's direct and audible revelation - He is finished and now holds us accountable for all that He revealed to us about the past, the present, and the future!
I do not interpret Hebrew 1:1-2 as saying that "God spoke directly in these last days". Verse 1 says, "God....spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets." NOTICE: "By the prophets."
Verse 2: "Hath in these last days spoken to by (his) Son,..." Again NOTICE: "..by (his) Son"; literally "in Son".
I'm not a real OT scholar. Could you give verses where God gave His direct and audible revelation to the masses?
I interpret Rev. 22:18-19 to mean just what it says: "If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book. And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book."
John writes "these things" and "this book", i.e., the book of Revelation.
Also, "the book of this prophecy", can only mean Revelation.
If, you apply the curses upon, and the blessings lost, to the scope of the whole Bible, then those translators who, as you imply, have either taken away or added to, the "inspired Greek text", did any curses fall on them in their life time?
The sad thing to me, is that one version or another is automatically condemned because of preconceived ideas, believing they couldn't be reasonably accurate.
If the earliest translators, such as Tyndale, would have translated as literal as possible to the "Textus Receptus", there would be so much less confusion in seeking the truth. But, to me, even his theology regarding many things was already set (as with practically all of us), which influenced his choice of words.
And so, all of the early English versions, including the AV, have the same problems.
There are many, I'll give a few examples:
Luke 1:32-33: KJV, "He shall be called great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David: And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever: and of his kingdom there shall be no end."
Now, 1 Cor. 15:24-28: "Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. For he must reign, till he hath put all enemie under his feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all."
I is a long quote. But Paul is emphatic that God gives the rule to the Son. And eventually, all enemies will be put under his feet, and then Christ delivers the kingdom to God, even the Father. Christ's rule ends because every thing/everyone in the universe is subdued to him; and then Christ, the Son, becomes subject unto the Father, that God may be all in all.
The problem in Luke is most compilers of the versions used the word "ever" for "age" the correct meaning of the Greek word "aion".
Please, check this out in a concordance, such as Young's.
I don't want to be misunderstood. I am most familiar with the KJV, and refer to it, as well as the other versions I have. But, all the tools should be used to arrive at the truth.
Bick
