Catholic Crusader said:
Drew said:
Paul is not teaching against salvation by "good works" here, he is teaching against the belief that one can be saved by performing the works of Torah .....
I thought I said that too. :D
You did indeed. I just filled out the argument, showing how the material that follows the 2:8-10 block clearly makes no sense if indeed "good works" are in view in the 2:8-10 block. If the salvific value of "good works" is what Paul is denying in 2:8-10, it makes no sense for Paul to say "therefore" in verse 11 and then go on to
make a case about the dividing line between Jew and Gentile has been dissolved in Christ. It would only make sense for Paul to do this if he believes that the Gentiles lack good works which the Jews indeed possess. Under those circumstances, it would indeed be sensible for Paul to say "Listen you Gentiles, you need not do the good works that the Jews are doing to be saved (since good works do not save),
therefore...you are "no longer foreigner to the covenants of the promise, etc., etc.).
But, of course, Paul does
not believe this - he believes that Jew and Gentile alike are in sin. So it makes no sense for Paul, if he has really asserted that "good works" do not save, to then say "
therefore you Gentiles now have hope since the barrier between Jew and Gentile has been destroyed, etc. etc." Why does this not make sense? Obviously, because Jew and Gentile are on equal footing in respect to "good works" -
neither does enough good works to save.
Paul is therefore obviously talking about the works of Torah in 2:8-10. Then the "therefore" stuff makes sense since Torah is indeed the thing that divides Jew from Gentile and is the basis for the Gentile believing that he is on the outside in respect to the covenant promises.
Catholic Crusader, we are in violent agreement on this.