The beginning is the time when God began his creative work, but the Greek is such that when the beginning began, the Word was already in existence.
But that would be to read into the text something that isn't there, namely, the idea of "other" things. First, John 1:3 says "Through him all things were made." That simply means what it says, "all things." Then, the text is fairly emphatic, repeating the idea in a different way: "without him nothing was made that has been made."
So, not only is "other" not in the Greek text, the idea itself is precluded by the Greek of verse 1.
Context is the most important determiner of meaning.
Col 1:15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.
Col 1:16 For by him all things were created, in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities—all things were created through him and for him.
Col 1:17 And he is before all things, and in him all things hold together. (ESV)
From the context, we can see that "firstborn" cannot mean that the Son was created at some point in time. Again, we see that "by him all things were created," "all things were created through him and for him," and "he is before all things." The repetition is meaningful, emphatically making the point. And, again, just like in John 1:3, there is no "other" in the Greek text. Therefore, the only logical conclusion is that Jesus (or the Son) cannot be something that was created, something that did not exist at one point, or verses 16 and 17 are false. It would also mean that John 1:1, 3 are also false.
So, how are we to understand "firstborn" at it relates to the Son? It is used in several places in the Bible to metaphorically denote the preeminence of a firstborn son:
Psa 89:27 And I will make him the firstborn, the highest of the kings of the earth. (ESV)
Psalms 89:27 is a messianic Psalm where God says of David, "I will make him the firstborn." Here, firstborn clearly means that God will put him in a position of preeminence, "the highest of the kings of the earth." David is here the prototype of the coming Messiah, the "firstborn," and has nothing to do with David's being born or coming into being. This is almost certainly what Paul had in mind, and we see something similar in Romans:
Rom 8:29 For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. (ESV)
Here is means the same--that Jesus would be the head of all believers.
In relation to the Son then, we can understand that
Col. 1:15 is speaking of Jesus's place of preeminence, his sovereignty, and his lordship, over all creation.
Rev 3:14 simply means the beginner or author of God's creation. This is supported by John 1:1-3 and Col 1:16-17.
Rev 1:17 and 2:8 have already referred to Jesus as "
the first and the last." This is repeated in Rev 22:13, where he is also called "
the Alpha and the Omega" and "
the beginning and the end." That is not only one clue as to what "beginning" means as it refers to Jesus, it is also the same language God uses of himself in Rev 1:6 ("
I am the Alpha and the Omega"). Note also that these titles God uses of himself in Isaiah:
Isa 44:6 Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: “
I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no god. (ESV)
Isa 48:12 “Listen to me, O Jacob, and Israel, whom I called! I am he;
I am the first, and I am the last. (ESV)
That is blasphemous of Jesus if he isn't
also God in the truest sense.
You can disagree, but the Greek construction doesn't allow for the Word to have had a beginning.
God did send his Son, I am not denying that, but the Son is also in nature God. A son is never of a different nature than his father. And if that nature is deity, then the Son must also be deity, which has as a necessary attribute, eternal preexistence.
Except that God says numerous times that there is no other god. Judaism, and Christianity, as the continuing story, are both strictly monotheist. The Bible affirms this repeatedly. I already posted Isa 44:6 to make one point, but I'll post it again to make another:
Isa 44:6 Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: “I am the first and I am the last;
besides me there is no god. (ESV)
God says there is no god, so any translation that says, in John 1:1, "god" or "a god" is just incorrect. Just to be sure, we also have:
Isa 43:10 "You are my witnesses," declares the LORD, "and my servant whom I have chosen, that you may know and believe me and understand that I am he.
Before me no god was formed, nor shall there be any after me.
Isa 44:8 Fear not, nor be afraid; have I not told you from of old and declared it? And you are my witnesses!
Is there a God besides me? There is no Rock; I know not any."
Isa 45:5 I am the LORD, and
there is no other, besides me there is no God; I equip you, though you do not know me,
Isa 45:6 that people may know, from the rising of the sun and from the west, that there is none besides me;
I am the LORD, and there is no other.
Isa 45:18 For thus says the LORD, who created the heavens (he is God!), who formed the earth and made it (he established it; he did not create it empty, he formed it to be inhabited!): "
I am the LORD, and there is no other.
Isa 45:21 Declare and present your case; let them take counsel together! Who told this long ago? Who declared it of old? Was it not I, the LORD?
And there is no other god besides me, a righteous God and a Savior; there is none besides me.
Isa 45:22 "Turn to me and be saved, all the ends of the earth! For
I am God, and there is no other.
Isa 46:9 remember the former things of old;
for I am God, and there is no other; I am God, and there is none like me,
(All ESV)
If God himself says there is no other god, then there is no other god. Ever (Isa 43:10).