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THE SOVEREIGNTY OF GOD

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Paul Timothy said:
No. I didn't say that... only that the text you use to prove your point foes not apply to your point.

That is not my idea at all. You are putting words in my mouth.
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I don't know what your problem is. You know adding to or subtracting from what our Father says isn't only by written form. Incorrectly interpreting the Bible is adding to or subtracting from what God said,

Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching fordoctrines the commandments of men.....For Moses said.....but ye say...Mk.7:7,10-11

They worshipped God.....in vain.
 
journeyman said:
I don't know what your problem is. You know adding to or subtracting from what our Father says isn't only by written form. Incorrectly interpreting the Bible is adding to or subtracting from what God said,

Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching fordoctrines the commandments of men.....For Moses said.....but ye say...Mk.7:7,10-11

They worshipped God.....in vain.
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Why are you saying I have a problem?
What did I do to you?
I am just pointing out the weakness of the proof texts used to justify your position.
I am not saying you are wrong nor am I saying you are right.
Just that your argument is based on faulty use of certain verses.
Just tighten up your arguments and we will not have any more disagreements.
 
Paul Timothy said:
Why are you saying I have a problem?
What did I do to you?
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I honestly don't understand what your point is.
Paul Timothy said:
I am just pointing out the weakness of the proof texts used to justify your position.
I am not saying you are wrong nor am I saying you are right.
Just that your argument is based on faulty use of certain verses.
Just tighten up your arguments and we will not have any more disagreements.
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You're point seems to be the prohibition of adding or subtracting from what God says is only specific to certain writings. But you also seem to agree that no writing should be altered. So, what is your problem?
 
journeyman said:
I honestly don't understand what your point is.

You're point seems to be the prohibition of adding or subtracting from what God says is only specific to certain writings. But you also seem to agree that no writing should be altered. So, what is your problem?
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Your proof texts.
I am telling you what the issue is but you are not getting it.
Don't use verses out of their proper context.
Rev 22:18-19 is only for Revelation.
If you use that verse for the entire Bible then your theology is on very shaky ground.
 
Paul Timothy said:
So you are backing away from your position.
Really?
Just one difference that makes a difference.
Surely you have at least one example that you base your bias on.

Just one.
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Wiki.
The King James Version (KJV) and the Revised Version (RV) are two different versions of the Bible. The RV is a late 19th-century British revision of the KJV1. The New Testament of the RV was published in Britain on May 17, 1881, and three days later in the United States, after 11 years of labor2. Over 30,000 changes were made, of which more than 5,000 represent differences between the Greek text used for the RV and that used as the basis of the KJV2. Most of the other changes were made in the interest of consistency or modernization2.

That's all from me for now.
 
jeremiah1five said:
Wiki.
The King James Version (KJV) and the Revised Version (RV) are two different versions of the Bible. The RV is a late 19th-century British revision of the KJV1. The New Testament of the RV was published in Britain on May 17, 1881, and three days later in the United States, after 11 years of labor2. Over 30,000 changes were made, of which more than 5,000 represent differences between the Greek text used for the RV and that used as the basis of the KJV2. Most of the other changes were made in the interest of consistency or modernization2.

That's all from me for now.
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You have not pointed out a single difference that might change the message.
Where is some difference that would be a problem?
Is it not a kin to different languages and different idioms?
So where does all these changes move the needle at all?
 
Paul Timothy said:
You have not pointed out a single difference that might change the message.
Where is some difference that would be a problem?
Is it not a kin to different languages and different idioms?
So where does all these changes move the needle at all?
Click to expand...
Consider it a tip.
What you do with it is on you.
This is about THE SOVEREIGNTY OF GOD.
 
Paul Timothy said:
Your proof texts.
I am telling you what the issue is but you are not getting it.
Don't use verses out of their proper context.
Rev 22:18-19 is only for Revelation.
If you use that verse for the entire Bible then your theology is on very shaky ground.
Click to expand...
The shaky ground is where people think

Ye shall not surely die: Gen.3:4

is ok, because God didn't specify to Eve the immutability of his word. I've cited where this applies not only to writing, but speaking also.

The strange thing is, you seem to know that it's never right to change anything God says and want to argue against that.
 
journeyman said:
The shaky ground is where people think

Ye shall not surely die: Gen.3:4

is ok, because God didn't specify to Eve the immutability of his word. I've cited where this applies not only to writing, but speaking also.

The strange thing is, you seem to know that it's never right to change anything God says and want to argue against that.
Click to expand...
What are you talking about?
I didn't see you making any sense with this post.
 
jeremiah1five said:
We're off subject with your desire for me to post on bible versions.
look it up.
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Well I did and I see no evidence that differences in translation have changed meaning.

So I have shown your concerns to be unfounded.

If you have a specific example of the different translations changing doctrine... please let me know.
 
Paul Timothy said:
Well I did and I see no evidence that differences in translation have changed meaning.

So I have shown your concerns to be unfounded.

If you have a specific example of the different translations changing doctrine... please let me know.
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Ok. Good enough.
Let’s move on.
Sovereignty of God.
God’s Will overrules man’s will.
Free will in man is an illusion within the eternal confines of God’s Will.
 
Does God have total Sovereignty over His creation?

Or does His creation do whatever they want?

This is the OP. Please keep it on topic. If anyone wants to talk about something else, then start a new thread.
 
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