V
VirginShallConceive
Guest
Hi, felix.I just asked "ONE" evidence. So, where is it? You have the boldness to criticize me yet have no boldness to show me an evidence for a language?
Let me know what they have dug so far and point me to that evidence.
I said, evidence for just "ONE" language before 3100 BC. Did I made that clear? I don't want anyone to criticize like this without evidence. Neither did I ask anyone to believe me for I am asking for evidence.
Since many seem to believe that languages existed long before, I just need evidence for your blind belief.
You're right. I was wrong on that one. Fair enough.
It doesn't seem to me that all written languages just "poofed" into existence on one particular day. How about the native people of the Americas? They developed writing at a later time. Another thing is that the gradual(not instantaneous) evolution of language can be observed, like from Old English to Modern English.Do you have any scientific explanation of how, all of a sudden different languages started to emerge along with different scripts appearing at the same time?
- The date you mentioned 3500 BC (may be referring to Kish tablet) is not any writing, nor it is Sumerian. The oldest known Sumerian tablets date only from 3100 BC.
- The earliest known Egyptian hieroglyphs was also around 3100 BC.
- Proto-Elamite (undeciphered) from around 3100 BC
- The existence of Akkadian language is attested in Sumerian texts by using it's proper names around 2900 BC.
For me, I used to think that, but now I know that there wasn't one language. It's not only the languages, but the story of a God who scatters people all over the world, mixes up all their languages, only to allow them to regroup later on and build space stations. The language is huge too. If you really wanted to mix up the languages, why would you have the Chinese, Vietnamese, and Korean languages next to each other, and then the English, German, and French next to each other? I could mix them up better than that. You gotta stir that pot.I do know there was one language in antediluvian era and God confused the languages in tower of Babel.
Without evidence, it is not scientific to even say that languages existed before 3100 BC (+/- 200 yrs).
So here, you have me " knowing" that there was more than one language in 7000 B.C., and you have you "knowing" that there was only one language in 3200 B.C.
Why is that? I'm sure you and I both agree that 1+1=2. I'm sure that you and I both agree that water is 2 parts hydrogen and 1 part oxygen. Why would we hold such extremely different "knowledges" when it comes to the Tower of Babel? There is one major thing that can cause such extremities. It's called "motive". Motive is huge. You so badly want the story to be true. Do you think my reason for holding my "knowledge" is because I so badly want the story to be false? Why would I? I have no motive. I just gather the available data, like the reasons I mentioned above, and come to my conclusion. That's it.
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