This is perfectly true, but not in conflict with this (
Col 2:2,
3):
That their hearts might be comforted, being knit together in love, and unto all riches of the full assurance of understanding, to the acknowledgement of the mystery of God, and of the Father, and of Christ;In whom are hid all the treasures of wisdom and knowledge.
So we need to be clear that the "mystery of God" includes the Father, and the Son.This points to both The Father and the Son being in the Godhead. But then with reference to Christ we read further in
Col 1:19and
2:9:
For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily....
For it pleased the Father that in him should all fulness dwell;So now God is plainly telling us that even though Christ has a body, "the fulness of the Godhead" (not merely "the substance of God") is in Christ[which is not really "merely", but only to show the contrast from your view].
This reinforces the truth that the Lord Jesus Christ is FULLY GOD, as much as the Father is FULLY GOD.
You asked me what the original teaching of the Trinity was, and what I posted is what was believed for the first several hundred years of the Christian faith. As I said, the idea of three co-equal, coeternal persons did not appear in the church until several hundred years later.
We can discuss it if you’d like but what I’ve already stated is from the beginning. Firstly, let me say that I don’t believe the mystery of Colossians is a reference to the Trinity but rather to the Christian faith. Paul isn’t explaining the Trinity, he’s explaining their faith. However, I do understand your posting it because the idea of one being consisting of three persons is a logical contradiction and cannot logically be explained. I’ve asked several Christians and I’ll pose the question here, If God consists of three persons, what is God?
You see, many Christians say that there is one God and He consists of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. The pronoun He is first person singular and it refers to a living being. We don’t use “he” for inanimate objects, it’s used of things that are alive. So, when Christians say, “He” consists of, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, they are in effect saying that there is one living being that consists of three other living beings, the Father, Son, and Holy spirit. I think it’s obvious to anyone that there is a logical problem with this. Three beings cannot be one being. However, this creates yet other problems. Jesus gave all honor to the Father and said that He was the only true God. If there is a being that consists of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit, that being would be greater than the Father as the Father would only be a part of that being. This also would in essence destroy the Trinity as there would be four, not three. There would be the three persons and the complete being. I think these problems rule out the idea that God consisting of three persons is a “He”.
So, How can God be a Trinity? The answer lies in understanding that the word God is used in two different ways in the Scriptures. For the most part it is used as a name for the Father. When we say God, typically we mean the Father. However, the word literally means deity, when used in this sense it can be speaking of the Father, Son, or Holy Spirit. So, when we see God referred to as “He” we know it’s being used in the sense of a name or title, at other times we need to determine whether it is being used as a name or of deity.
Regarding “the Godhead,” Godhead is an old English word that means Godhood. Basically it means deity or divinity. So, yes, Jesus is deity, there is no doubt about that. Even the Nicene Creed says that He is very God of very God, very Deity of very Deity
I think what we need to look at is not what ideas can the Scriptures accommodate, but rather, what do they teach.
How can Christ be "very God of very God" and not be co-eternal and co-equal with the Father? Just because those terms are absent from the creeds does not mean that that truth is absent. Think about it. When Jesus said that "the Father is greater than I", He was referring to the fact that "the Head of Christ is God" (
1 Cor 11:3).
This pertains to authority within the Godhead, not inequality.That is why the Father
sentthe Son to be the Savior of the world, and the Father and the Son
sentthe Holy Spirit to earth on the Day of Pentecost. Again, we are dealing with the Mystery of God (not meant for human comprehension but human faith).
I’ve explained that in the other post with the example of fire. Whatever, the substance of the Word is, it existed in the Father before being begotten, that is how He could be eternal and yet have an origin.
I agree that when Jesus said, ‘the Father is greater than I,” He was referring to authority or order. However, that doesn’t mean He had all of the same attributes as the Father. When a man has a son, that son is just as human as his father, no more, no less. However, that doesn’t mean every attribute of the father is in the son. There are attributes that are unique to God the Father alone, that the Word/Son does not possess.
Again, I’ll have to disagree with the mystery claim. It’s not what was originally taught. What was originally taught is fully understandable. To take something that is fully understandable and then claim a mystery to support an idea that isn’t taught in the Scriptures doesn’t make sense to me. There is nothing in Scripture that says, we believe in one God, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit. What I’ve posted is plainly stated in Scripture right out of the writings of the apostle Paul, ‘to us there is one God, the Father,’ and in the words of Jesus Himself, when He called the Father the only true God.
Now you have come to the heart of the matter. God calls this paradox
"the Mystery of Godliness"--
that God could remain fully God and at the same time remain fully Man without confusion or contradiction(
1 Tim 3:16):
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.
This reminds us of
John 1:14,
18:
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth...
No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
Therefore we know that
God the Wordtook human form ("made flesh") but He was eternally "the only begotten [uniquely begotten] Son". The Son is distinct from the Father, but fully God (
Heb 1:8,
9). That is a mystery.
When you asked about the paradox of "fully God and fully Man" you forgot that this is the paradox of the God-Man Christ Jesus, and
"with God nothing shall be impossible"(
Lk 1:37).
But you see, this is only a problem when one believes that there is a being called God that consists of three persons. Take for instance the passage you quoted here,
“And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.”
If one understands this passage as God consisting of three persons becoming manifest in the flesh, or even one of the persons of that being that is God being manifest in the flesh, I can see how one would need to claim a paradox or mystery. However, if we change the word God to it’s definition it becomes clear without any mystery or paradox. It would simply say, Deity was manifest in the flesh. This fits nicely with the original teaching of the Trinity. Let’s use another example John 1:1
KJV
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (Joh 1:1 KJV)
Some read this and conclude that the word and God are one and the same. However, let’s change the word God for it’s definition.
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with Deity, and the Word was Deity.
Now it’s easy to see how the Word could be with the Father, not be the Father, and still be deity. We could use an example of human authority too, in the beginning was the Word and the Word was with Royalty, and the Word was royalty. Using this example the Word could be royalty Himself and be with royalty, such as the King or the Queen.
When we understand it this way it makes perfect sense and we don’t need to invoke any mysteries or paradoxes to cover what is not explainable. Also, when we understand it this way we understand it in the way it was understood in the beginning, not several hundred years later.